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QUESTION 85
Universal Containers has two teams – sales team and marketing team. For sales team all stages of lead lifecycle should be available while for marketing team only 3 stages should be available.
How can the administrator ensure this?
A. Create validation rule
B. Create two different lead processes for sales team and marketing team
C. Create workflow rule
D. Create approval process
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 86
What license is needed to install or uninstall apps from AppExchange?
A. Install package license
B. Uninstall package license
C. Manage package license.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87
Force.com is good for
A. data centric apps
B. process centric apps
C. both of above
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 88
Roll up summary field and Cross object formula field can be created only for master detail relationship.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 89
Field level security and record types work at
A. profile level
B. record level
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 90
Sharing rules can be more restrictive than the Organization Wide Default.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 91
Apex sharing reason can be used for
A. Manual sharing of records or one-off sharing which is done on a record basis
B. General sharing rule
C. Both of above
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
‘Status’ is a picklist of the Account object having value ‘Open’ or ‘Closed’. It is possible to create a sharing rule to share only those Accounts whose ‘Status’ is ‘Open’.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 93
Organization wide default (OWD) & sharing rules are applied at the A. profile level
B. object level
C. record level
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 94
Organization wide default (OWD) is the first check used for determining access to records a user does not own.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 95
Automating business processes is possible using
A. workflow
B. approval processes
C. both of above
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 96
Checkbox can be controlling field only and not a dependant field.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 97
Multi select picklist can be dependant field only and not a controlling field.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
External id can be created for field of type text, number or email.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 99
In Developer Edition, Validation rule for the ‘Account Site’ field (field of type text) of Account object is, ISCHANGED( Site ) && OwnerId < > $User.Id to make sure that if the ‘Account Site’ field has been modified and the user is not the owner of the Account record, then an error message would be shown. The System Administrator has Read All, Modify All permission for the Account record. So the System Administrator will be able to modify the ‘Account Site’ field of the
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 26
What must a developer consider when inserting records using an API-based tool? Choose 2 answers
A. Required fields on page layouts are enforced.
B. Universally required field settings are respected.
C. Apex triggers are ignored.
D. Invalidation rules are respected.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 27
A developer needs to support multiple currencies for a custom object in an application. The multi-cur-rency feature has been enabled for the organization.
What does the developer need to know in order to successfully support this application? Choose 2 an-swers
A. Administrators can add additional currencies after the application has been built.
B. Roll-up summary fields on a parent record will calculate incorrectly if the child records have multi- ple currencies.
C. The multi-currency feature will automatically track historical exchange rates.
D. Currency ISO code will need to be supplied when inserting records in different currencies.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 28
Which feature is available for custom objects? Choose 3 answers
A. Queues
B. Field history tracking
C. Assignment rules
D. Criteria-based sharing

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 29
In a bug tracking application. Universal Containers has created a time-based workflow action that will execute 30 days after a Bug record is created. The developer would like to test to make sure that rule is working the way that it should.
Which feature is available for testing? Choose 2 answers
A. Time-based workflow queue
B. Activity History related list
C. Bug History related list

D. Debug Log Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 30
Object B has a lookup relationship to Object A. Object C has a lookup relationship to Object B. A de-veloper needs to run a report on A records with C records.
How can the developer accomplish this?
A. Create a matrix report with A and B records as column headings and C records as row headings
B. Create a custom report type that includes A with B with C
C. Create a summary report with a custom summary formula summarizing by A, then B, then C
D. Run a report using the standard report type: A with B with C

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 31
Universal Containers tracks Offers as an object in a recruiting application. Once an offer has been ac-cepted by a candidate, there must be a value in a currency field called Actual Salary.
How would a developer meet this requirement?

A. Create a workflow field update to set the property of the Actual Salary field to Required
B. Create a field dependency between the Salary Amount and status of Accepted.
C. Create a validation rule to make sure that the Actual Salary is not null whenever an offer is accepted.
D. Create a validation rule to make Actual Salary required each time the offer record is saved.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 32
For objects where data access is granted through the role hierarchy, how is access granted?
A. Users are granted access to data accessible by users below them in the role hierarchy.
B. Users are only granted access to data owned by users below them In the role hierarchy.
C. Users are only granted read access to data owned by users above them in the role hierarchy.
D. Users are granted access to data accessible to users in the same role in the role hierarchy.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
In a recruiting application, a Position custom object is related to a Salary custom object. Sensitive in-formation, such as current salary, is stored on the Salary object. All users should be able to at least view position information. However, only select individuals should be able to read salary records.
How should a developer accomplish this?
A. Create a lookup relationship between Position and Salary; set organization-wide defaults to Public Read-Only for Position and Private for Salary
B. Create a master-detail relationship between Position and Salary; set organization-wide defaults to Private for Position and Salary
C. Create a master-detail relationship between Position and Salary; set organization-wide defaults to Public Read only for Position and Private for Salary
D. Create a lookup relationship between Position and Salary; set organization-wide defaults to Private for Position and Salary

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 34
Which field is available as part of the translation workbench for a validation rule?
A. Formula
B. Description
C. Error Message
D. Rule Criteria

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
Which statement is true regarding Force.com Sites? Choose 3 answers
A. Sites can leverage declarative page layouts as web pages.
B. Sites enables developers to build public, unauthenticated websites.
C. Sites are built with Visualforce pages.
D. Sites leverage data and content in a Salesforce org.

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 36
Object X has a lookup field to Object Y. X needs to display a text value from a Text field on Y. To en- sure data Integrity, how would a developer implement this?
A. Create a roll-up summary field on Object X that retrieves the value from Y.
B. Create a text field on Object X and use a workflow rule to fill in the value upon the creation of X
C. Create a cross-object formula field on Object X that retrieves the value from Y.
D. Create a text field on Object X and use Apex to populate the value.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
Which mechanism allows for authenticated access to a Force.com Site? Choose 2 answers
A. It is not possible to provide authentication for a Force.com Site
B. An active Customer Portal
C. An active Partner Portal
D. Setting restricted IP ranges for your site

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
Universal Containers requires that some employees are able to view and edit records of a custom object called Positions, but no users can delete them.
How can Universal Containers accomplish this goal?
A. Assign the Read-only profile to all users
B. Set the organization wide default for positions to Read-only
C. Remove the Delete permission for positions from all profiles
D. Remove the Delete Access for positions from all user roles

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 39
In a recruiting application, a master-detail relationship has been defined between two custom objects. Job Applications (master) and Reviews (detail).
Which statement is TRUE? Choose 2 answers
A. Review records will inherit ownership from the associated job application.
B. Deleting a job application record will delete associated review records.
C. The master-detail relationship between Job Applications and Reviews is defined on the Job Applica-tion object.
D. Review records may exist without an associated job application.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 40
How can a wireless device user approve a record? Choose 3 answers
A. via a text message
B. via Approvals in Chatter
C. via voice recognition
D. via email from a wireless device
E. via Salesforce1

Correct Answer: BDE

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QUESTION 68
While adding a contact role to an Account which of these contacts a counter available?
A. Contacts present in the related list of that Account
B. All Contacts from the Contact object.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 69
Which of these standard fields can be tracked through Field HistoryTracking?
A. Name
B. Owner
C. Created By
D. Last Modified By
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 70
Standard picklist fields can be either controlling fields or dependent fields.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 71
Custom picklist fields can be either controlling or dependent fields.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 72
A field marked as ‘Required’ on an object (while creating the field itself on the object by checking the checkbox for `Required Always require a value in this field in order to save a record’) can be overridden to make this field ‘Read-Only’ by checking the `Read-Only’ checkbox on the page layout.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 73
Record types can be used to determine
A. picklist values
B. business processes (using different page layouts)
C. Both of above
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 74
Which of these can edit a record during an approval process?
A. Only Administrator
B. Only Current approver
C. Both of above
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 75
Submitters can always recall approval requests.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 76
If the entry criteria for a step in an approval process are not met, then the record gets rejected.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 77
If an approver rejects an approval request, then the final rejection actions are always executed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 78
New approval steps can be added to an active approval process only if it is deactivated.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 79
Records can enter an approval process based on
A. Based on criteria.
B. If ‘All records enter this approval process’ checkbox is checked, then all records of that object which are submitted for approval would enter this approval process.
C. Only A is valid
D. Only B is valid
E. Both A and B are valid
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 80
Records can enter a step in an approval process based on
A. Based on criteria
B. If ‘All records enter this step’ checkbox is checked, then all records which have entered this approval process, would enter this step of the approval process
C. Only A is valid
D. Only B is valid
E. Both A and B are valid.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 81
Specifying entry criteria is compulsory for
A. Workflow rule
B. Approval process
C. Both workflow rule and approval process
D. Neither workflow rule nor approval process
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 82
If the record submitted does not meet the entry criteria of any active approval process, then the record gets rejected.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 83
Rollup summary can be created for
A. Master-detail relationship
B. Lookup relationship
C. Both of above
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 84
A user faces problem while logging into Salesforce. What should administrator do?
A. Change IP address of the machine
B. Unlock the user
C. See login history
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 91
What key considerations should be kept in mind when designing a 300TB solution?
A. Workflow management Defining class of service Time of day services RPO and RTO
Data retention and backup
B. Defining class of service Time of day services ROI and TCO Data retention and backup
C. SmartPools Smartconnect Snapshots Space for snapshots
D. Always include 2% SSD SmartPools Smartconnect Snapshots InsightIQ

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
You meet a customer for the first time. They explain that their current environment for NAS does not meet their needs. You want to make sure that Isilon is a good fit for their needs.
What would be a good prequalifying question to ask?
A. What protocols are accessing your NAS?
B. What application are you using to create directories?
C. Is your datacenter ISO9001 compliant?
D. How many users are in your Directory Services?

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 93
You meet a customer for the first time. They explain that their current environment for NAS does not meet their needs. You want to make sure that Isilon is a good fit for their needs.
What would be a good prequalifying question to ask?
A. What Applications access this storage?
B. What type of racks are in your datacenter?
C. Are you using a KVM to access your storage?
D. How many NICs do your clients have?

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
You are reviewing an opportunity with a trusted advisor. You both discover gaps in the initial solution design.
Each iterative discussion with the customer helps you define the solution better. The documents produced capture the customer’s requirements.
What else needs to occur to refine the sizing considerations?
A. Validate the Workflow Profile Assessment and test the solution against your findings.
B. Review you assumptions and ask the customer what business issue you’re solving.
C. Provide the CIO with the findings and gain commitment to a Proof of Concept.
D. Complete your Solution Design Document and forward to EMC consulting.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 95
When conducting high-level interviews with stakeholders of a project, what are the key questions that should be asked?
A. How much usable storage are you looking for? What client OS will access this storage? Which applications will access this storage?
B. Which backup application is in use today? What is your change rate? How many clients will connect to the cluster?
C. What does your network architecture look like Do you have existing NAS infrastructure? Do you have 10Gb or 1Gb Which applications will access this storage?
D. Who are the application owners? How much usable storage is needed? What applications will be accessing the storage? How many users are in your Active Directory?

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
When designing Isilon solutions, what issues should you pay special attention to?
A. Avoid being too enthusiastic over the technology Balancing technical and business requirements Provide Options Design to meet customer expectations
B. Workflow Document Solutions Document Application types Data strategy
C. Solutions Document Balancing technical and business requirements Providing many options Practical vs. theoretical implementations
D. Solutions Document Balancing technical and business requirements Downstream hand-off Design to meet customer expectations
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 97
When designing Isilon solutions, which issue should you pay special attention to?
A. Meet customer expectations
B. Create a workflow document
C. Conduct stakeholder interviews
D. Follow all SSD sizing rules

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 98
Your customer purchased an Isilon cluster with eight X400 nodes for Home Directories. Your follow-up discussions have uncovered an opportunity to expand the cluster to support the Legal Department. As you prepare to complete the Workflow Profile Document, you meet with the customer to discuss data protection.
Which key areas should you address?
A. Default Cluster Protection Level Additional Directory Level Protections Snapshots and Replication
B. WORM requirements Network ports for replication Snapshots for user restores
C. Default Cluster Protection Level Backup Windows and Processes Concurrency of user access
D. Protocols (SMB, NFS, FTP, HTTP, HDFS) Authentication and Directory Services Performance and Latency Concerns

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99
You have had several discussions with your customer in the processor design industry. They have stated that they want a Scale-Out NAS platform for their design environment. Their most significant responses were “We have 125 design engineers accessing large diagrams and we need high throughput to support them. Can we also get the highest performance available? We need to stay ahead of our competitors.” Other areas you discussed were their data retention policies and workflow after the chip design is completed. They plan to archive the design files but the files must stay on line.
What is your initial node recommendation?
A. S-Series nodes for the active diagrams and NL Series nodes for the archives
B. A-Series nodes for the active diagrams and X-Series nodes for the archives.
C. X-Series nodes for the active diagrams and NL 400 nodes for the archives
D. X-Series nodes with SSD for the active diagrams and NL nodes for the archives

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 100
You have gathered information from your customer about their current NAS environment. They indicated they are having performance and time-out issues with their clients accessing the storage. Currently over 5000 clients are simultaneously accessing the NAS; however, this will double in the next year.
Based on this information, what recommendations for a new Isilon cluster would you give to the customer based on this information?
A. Create a six node X400 cluster today. As additional clients are added, add additional X400 nodes for them.
B. Create a seven node X400 cluster today. You will not need to purchase additional nodes as more clients are added.
C. Create a three node cluster today. As more clients are added, add three additional nodes each time for 1000 clients.
D. Create a five node X400 cluster today. As more clients are added, add a Performance Accelerator node for every 1000 clients.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 101
A cost-conscious customer is exploring Isilon for their PACS archive. The workflow consists of one hundred cases a day, each including fifty 60MB image files. However, each image will have five-hundred 64kB metadata files associated with it. They currently have six years worth of archived data. They will need to migrate to the new solution and they need to plan for an additional three years of archive capacity.
Which solution would you recommend to fit their capacity needs?
A. 24 NL-Series nodes with N+3 protection policy providing 2597 TiB of useable capacity
B. 18 NL-Series nodes with N+2:1 protection policy providing 2078 TiB of useable capacity
C. 24 X-Series nodes with N+3 protection policy providing 2597 TiB of useable capacity
D. 12 NL-Series nodes with N+2 protection policy providing 1300 TiB of useable capacity

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 102
You are sizing an Isilon cluster for a new customer. Analyzing their workflow you determine that they have a large block random read workload.
What is the most important factor to consider when sizing this solution?
A. Bandwidth
B. IOPS
C. Latency
D. Headroom
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 103
A customer is inquiring about expanding their primary cluster consisting of six S-Series nodes in order to improve performance. They have a second cluster with 11 X-Series nodes. Both clusters leverage 1GbE, but the customer recently installed a 10GbE network that can be utilized. They also have multiple Fibre Channel SAN arrays in their environment.
They have a variety of workloads on each cluster and are in the process of determining which workloads belong on which cluster. They have discovered that one of the workloads- a SQL database that resides on the X-Series node cluster – is experiencing timeouts due to latency. The database vendor has suggested limiting latency to 5ms or less to eliminate these timeouts.
How do you advise the customer?
A. Consider migrating data from Isilon to one of their SAN platforms or proposing a new solution to handle the performance requirements of SQL.
B. Merge the S-Series nodes and X-Series nodes into one cluster, upgrade the 1GbE to 10GbE, and leverage SmartPools to allow for the cluster to determine where data should reside.
C. Suggest the customer consider leveraging SSDs in the new nodes they purchase and GNA to boost the performance of each cluster.
D. Recommend they increase the amount of DRAM in the cluster or consider an Accelerator node in order to increase the amount of cache in their cluster.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 104
You are designing a new Isilon system to store mobile device video clips. The files average 800MB in size and the application team tells you to plan for up to 15,000 new files per day. The product manager for this new service wants enough capacity for the first year and reminds you that response time for storing and retrieving the files is important for customer satisfaction.
The files will be accessed frequently for the first 48 hours after creation, and then very infrequently after seven days. You plan to use N+2:1 protection, and will configure a SmartPools policy to move inactive files to an archive tier within the cluster.
Which configuration best fits the project requirements?
A. 4 x X200 nodes with SSD; 36 x NL400 nodes with 4TB drives
B. 38 x X400 nodes with 4TB drives and SSD
C. 4 x S200 nodes with SSD; 45 x NL400 nodes with 3TB drives
D. 4 x X400 nodes with 1TB drives; 36 x NL400 nodes with 4TB drives

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 105
You have been working with a customer to size a new Isilon cluster for their environment. You recently determined that a cluster with three X400 nodes with 1TB drives and 48 GB RAM would be a perfect starting point for their workflow, but will have extra capacity. The customer just informed you that they have decided to also use the cluster for a small home directory environment and implement SmartQuotas.
Which configuration changes should you consider?
A. Increase the memory and add SSDs to the configuration.
B. Add an additional X400-Series node to the configuration.
C. Add three NL-Series nodes with 1 TB drives with 48GB RAM, and use SmartPools.
D. Add three S-Series nodes with 300GB drives with 48GB RAM, and use SmartPools.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 106
Your customer has an existing Isilon cluster comprised of five NL-Series nodes. They have a new project that will quadruple their current throughput requirements. Upon reviewing reports in InsightIQ, you see that the aggregate external network throughput is peaking at 600MB/s. The customer states that data is only active for the first 7 days, but they keep it indefinitely.
Which recommendation best supports their growth requirements?
A. Add X-Series nodes to the cluster, and use SmartPools to migrate inactive data to the NL- Series nodes.
B. Use the Isilon Sizing Tool to determine GNA requirements, and add NL-Series nodes with SSD to the cluster.
C. Add a VNX Unified array for the new project, and use rsync to migrate data to the Isilon cluster for archiving.
D. Add A-Series nodes to the cluster to boost combined network performance.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 107
A potential customer has about 540TB of NetApp running in ONTAP 7-Mode. They are willing to let you gather some workload data. They have LDAP and Active Directory authentication and primarily Windows Clients. They are very interested in Automated Tiering and Large Scale Archives. They are not certain about the workflows from the Marketing Department. The Content Team will only say they need to acquire 300 TB within 90 days. They do not know the average file size or the number of aggregates they are managing.
Which tools would you use to gather information to do your Isilon sizing?
A. MiTrend WPA, Autosupport, and PerfCollect
B. isi status, isi_netlogger, and PerfMon
C. Wireshark, isi statistics, and iostat
D. Isilon Insight IQ, OnCommand Insight, and nfsstat

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
A potential customer has 540TB Raw capacity of NetApp running in ONTAP 7-Mode. They are willing to let you gather some workload data. Their authentication sources are LDAP and Active Directory. Their users are primarily Windows Clients. They are very interested in Automated Tiering and Large Scale Archives. They are not certain about the workflows from the Marketing Department. The Content Team will only say they need to acquire 300 TB within 90 days. They do not know the average file size or the number of aggregates they are managing. Which tool(s) would you use next to complete your sizing?
A. MiTrend WPA, Autosupport, and PerfCollect
B. Isilon Cluster Sizing Tool
C. Wireshark, isi statistics, and iostat
D. Isilon Insight IQ, OnCommand Insight, and nfsstat

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 109
A potential customer uses a solution from an EMC competitor for NFS storage in their main data center. The existing arrays are five years old, and the customer would like to consolidate them into a single new system. The entire workload is generated by eight Linux hosts connected to the arrays that process video files. The customer informs you they are not able to collect performance information from the existing arrays.
Which tools can capture the workload requirements?
A. iostat and nfsstat
B. MiTrends and netmon
C. netstat and esxtop
D. Wireshark and sysstat

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 110
You get a call from a customer that has just added 200 user connections to the cluster. They want to know how fast they are writing data with these new users.
What tool would you use to gather this information?
A. InsightIQ
B. Network Monitor
C. Wireshark
D. Watch4net

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 111
You are called into an opportunity, you would like to get more information on the data skew of the filer. The customer has a supported filer.
What assessment tool would you use to generate this information?
A. Workload Profile
B. Workflow Proflie
C. InsightIQ
D. SupportIQ

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 112
A customer has grown 2 PB in the last year. The cluster performs well most times of the day, but occasionally during the day, the customer notices a decrease in performance. You have been told that `tree-deletes’ are taking too long and can only be run on weekends.
What would you recommend to speed up the `tree-deletes’?
A. Add an SSD node tier for metadata to account for at least 2% of RAW capacity
B. Use an A100 node for added CPU performance to help with `tree-deletes.’
C. Add 20% more nodes to the cluster to help with degraded performance.
D. Add an SSD tier for metadata, ensuring all nodes have SSDs.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 113
A customer has eight X400 24GB RAM that supports 400 client connections today The customer plans to add 400 more clients in the next few months. They are looking at adding an A-Series node to the cluster to help with client connections.
Before they start adding client connections, what hardware change do you recommend?
A. Add RAM to offset concurrent client connections
B. Add an A100 to offset concurrent client connections
C. Add nodes with SSD to help with connections
D. Add more network switches to increase the number of connections

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 114
You are asked to size a cluster for a file sharing environment. nfsstat indicates that no more than 10% of the requests are namespace operations (e.g. GETADDR, SETADDR). There will be 10,000 active Linux users, connecting over NFS.
Which cluster configuration would you recommend?
A. Ten X200 (27 TB) 48 GB RAM, 600 GB SSD, N+2:1
B. Five X400 (120 TB) 96 GB RAM, 2.4 TB SSD, N+2
C. Ten X400 (60 TB) 48 GB RAM, 2.4 TB SSD, N+2:1
D. Eight X200 (36 TB) 24 GB RAM, no SSD, N+2:1

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 115
Your customer’s site uses an old X-Series cluster, and they are interested in consolidating their two primary workflows. iostat shows that one of the applications is sensitive to latency, while isi statistics indicates sensitivity to disk response times. There are approximately 1000 users accessing 70 TB of file data.
Which node type would you recommend?
A. S200
B. X400
C. X200
D. NL400
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 116
A customer is making a decision between Isilon and a competitor’s offering. They currently have 100TB of usable capacity and are forecasting 100% growth per year for the next three years, which will require them to lease additional space in their co-located data center. The CFO finds ROI and TCO to be important decision criteria. Which statement best emphasizes the value of Isilon for this customer?
A. Isilon’s OneFS data protection policies offer substantially lower overhead than competitive RAID based NAS solutions.
B. An IDC study found that Isilon requires 95% less down time hours per year compared to other
competitors.
C. The competition cannot offer a scale-out NAS so as capacity is added to the array, performance may degrade.
D. Isilon’s OneFS allows administrators to manage much larger amounts of capacity than competitive offerings.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
A potential customer requires 4 PB of usable capacity to store media files. The workloads are a combination of streaming video delivery and long term archive of video assets.
There is very little space available in the customer’s datacenter, so physical density is very important. The customer is concerned about performance impact and potential data loss when using 3 TB or larger drives.
What Isilon capabilities can address the customer’s concerns?
A. Isilon does not perform rebuilds – data reprotection is typically 2x-3x faster than traditional RAID rebuilds. N+3 and N+4 Protection Levels exceed traditional RAID6 availability. Data redistribution runs faster with more nodes in the cluster.
B. N+3 and N+4 Protection Levels exceed traditional RAID6 availability. Proactive hot sparing eliminates most drive rebuilds. Endurant Cache reduces the overhead for write operations.
C. Isilon does not perform rebuilds – data reprotection is typically 2x-3x faster than traditional RAID rebuilds. Data recovery is consistent, taking the same amount of time regardless of cluster size. Isilon ‘short strokes’ 4TB drives to reduce rebuild time.
D. Isilon nodes have more drives per rack unit so fewer shelves are required. Proactive hot sparing eliminates most drive rebuilds. N+3 and N+4 Protection Levels exceed traditional RAID6 availability.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
A potential customer requires 800 TB of usable capacity to store medical images for their network of health clinics. The IT department has limited staff and currently manages four storage arrays from other vendors. During a meeting with the Director of IT you learn that the company is considering a solution from a competitor of EMC using two of the existing arrays and two new arrays.
Which Isilon capabilities would show a better ROI for the customer?
A. Isilon has 6%-12% less filesystem overhead than traditional clustered filesystem solutions. With a single filesystem and virtual capacity for drive and node failures, Isilon utilization is typically 80% or higher. Isilon utilization is typically 80% or higher due to use of a single filesystem and virtual capacity for drive and node failures.
B. With a single filesystem and virtual capacity for drive and node failures, Isilon utilization is typically 80% or higher. OneFS compression results in higher effective capacity within the cluster. Traditional clustered filesystems require 4%-10% internal overhead compared to Isilon virtual capacity.
C. Forward Error Correction overhead is 7% lower than traditional RAID. Isilon has 6%-12% less filesystem overhead than traditional clustered filesystem solutions. According to an IDC study, Isilon improves IT productivity by nearly 50% compared to traditional competitors.
D. Isilon has 15%-20% less overhead than traditional clustered filesystems. According to an IDC study, Isilon utilization is nearly 50% higher than traditional competitors. Isilon QOS headroom and multiple node pools ensures consistent performance up to 80% utilization.
Correct Answer: A

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No : 76

You are asked to create code that defines a Beverage, and includes method implementation code for some beverage behaviors. Beverage subtypes will be required to provide implementations of some, but not all, of the methods defined in Beverage.
Which approach correctly implements these goals?
A. Create an abstract Beverage class that defines only abstract methods.
B. Create a Beverage interface that all beverage subtypes must implement.
C. Create an abstract Beverage class that defines both abstract and concrete methods.
D. Create a concrete Beverage class that defines both abstract and concrete methods.
Answer: C
Question No : 77

Which two are NOT Enterprise Beans? (Choose two.)
A. JavaBeans
B. message-driven beans
C. session beans
D. entity beans
E. business beans
Answer: A,E
Question No : 78

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. An interface can implement another interface.
B. A class can implement more than one interface.
C. Many classes can implement the same interface.
D. Every class must implement at least one interface.
Answer: B,C
Question No : 79

Which two are associated with the business tier in a J2EE web-based application? (Choose two.)
A. Swing applications
B. JMS
C. JDBC
D. applets
E. servlets
Answer: B,C
Question No : 80

Click the Exhibit button.
Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. A Flux knows with which Grok it is associated.
B. A Grok knows with which Flux it is associated.
C. Deleting a Grok will cause a Plu to be deleted.
D. Deleting a Plu will cause a Grok to be deleted.
E. Deleting a Snip will cause its associated Grok to be deleted.
F. Any Grok associated with a Flux must be deleted when the Flux is deleted.
Answer: A,C
Question No : 81

Which Java technology provides a standard API for a publish-subscribe messaging model?
A. JAX-RPC
B. UDDI
C. JNDI
D. JMS
E. JSP
Answer: D
Question No : 82

A Java programmer wants to develop a small application to run on mobile phones. Which Java edition (or editions) are required to develop the application?
A. only J2ME
B. J2EE and J2ME
C. J2SE and J2ME
D. only J2EE
E. J2SE and J2EE
F. only J2SE
Answer: C
Question No : 83

Which environment has the highest probability of properly supporting an applet?
A. mobile environments using telephone handsets
B. Internet environment where client components are not standardized
C. J2EE server environment
D. intranet environment where client components are standardized
Answer: D
Question No : 84

Which is an appropriate description of session beans?
A. They are used to share data among clients.
B. They are used to implement business processes.
C. They are used to store persistent data.
D. They are used to represent data in an RDBMS.
Answer: B
Question No : 85

Which is NOT a characteristic of Swing?
A. Swing components can display a platform-independent “look and feel.”
B. Swing components are available in all web browsers.
C. Swing components can be used to develop J2EE client applications.
D. Swing components can display a platform-specific “look and feel.”
Answer: B
Question No : 86

Click the Exhibit button. Which class correctly implements the interface Flyer?

A. Penguin
B. Helicopter
C. Airplane
D. Lark
Answer: C
Question No : 87

A business-tier service is being developed that will provide credit card validation. The service is not associated with a specific client, but is available to all clients. The service also has to be as efficient as possible. Which J2EE component matches these needs?
A. entity bean
B. stateful session bean
C. stateless session bean
D. servlet
E. JNDI
Answer: C
Question No : 88

Given:
1.
interface Pet { }

2.
class Dog implements Pet { }

3.
class Beagle extends Dog { }
Which three are valid? (Choose three.)
A. Pet a = new Dog();
B. Dog d = new Beagle();
C. Dog f = new Pet();
D. Beagle c = new Dog();
E. Pet e = new Beagle();
F. Pet b = new Pet();
Answer: A,B,E
Question No : 89

Given:
1.
class Test {

2.
public static void main(String args[]) {

3.
int num1 = 10, num2 = 20, result;

4.
result = calc(num1, num2);

5.
System.out.println(result);

6.
}

7.

8.
// insert code here

9.
}
Which, inserted at line 8, produces the output 30?
A. static int calc(int n1, int n2) { return n1 + n2; }
B. static void calc(n1, n2) { return (n1 + n2); }
C. public int calc(int n1, int n2) { return; }
D. static int calc(int n1, int n2) { return; }
E. public int calc(int n1, int n2) { return n1 + n2; }
F. static int calc(int n1, n2) { return n1, n2; };
Answer: A
Question No : 90

Given:
13.
class Stone {

14.
String color = “white”;

15.
}

16.

17.
public class ManyStones {

18.
Stone[] stones = {new Stone(), new Stone(), new Stone()};

19.
}
Which is true?
A. Compilation fails.
B. The class ManyStones has a color attribute.
C. The class Stone has a relationship to a ManyStones object.
D. The class ManyStones CANNOT have access to multiple class Stone objects.
E. The class ManyStones has a relationship to three Stone objects.
Answer: E
Question No : 91

Click the Exhibit button. Which, inserted at line 3 of the TestDrink class, demonstrates the “program to an interface” principle?

A. Drinkable aDrink = DrinkableFactory.getDrinkable();
B. Drinkable aDrink = new Drinkable();
C. Tea aDrink = new Drinkable();
D. Tea aDrink = new Tea();
Answer: A
Question No : 92

Given:
Directory structure:

projects
|__src | |__foo | |__classes
A file Clock.java in the /projects/src/foo directory The working directory /projects/src The class Clock in package foo
Which command-line compiler invocation will create a foo directory within the classes directory, and then place the compiled Clock.class within that directory?
A. javac -directory ../classes/foo foo/Clock.java
B. javac -d ../classes/foo/Clock.java
C. javac -d ../classes/foo foo.Clock.java
D. javac -D foo/Clock.java
E. javac -d ../classes foo/Clock.java
Answer: E
Question No : 93

Given concrete class B is a subclass of concrete class A, and class A implements interface C, which two are examples of polymorphism? (Choose two.)
A. use a reference variable of type C to refer to an instance of type B
B. use a reference variable of type A to refer to an instance of type C
C. use a reference variable of type C to refer to an instance of type A
D. use a reference variable of type A to refer to an instance of type B
E. use a reference variable of type B to refer to an instance of type A
Answer: A,C
Question No : 94

Click the Exhibit button. Which code correctly implements the association between A and
B?
A. class A {
private B[] b;
}
class B {
private A a;
}

B. class A {
private B[] b;
}
class B { }

C. class A { }
class B {
private A[] a;
}

D. class A { }
class B {
private A a;
}

E. class A {
private B b;
}
class B {
private A[] a;
}

F. class A {
private B b;

} class B { }
Answer: B
Question No : 95

What is true about JavaScript clients?
A. They CANNOT write to the client’s hard drive.
B. They must be hosted by J2EE containers.
C. They require Java Web Start technology to be deployed.
D. They support all standard J2SE syntax.
Answer: A
Question No : 96

Which is a valid definition of an interface called Transportable given another valid interface, Movable?
A. class Movable extends Transportable { /*…*/ }
B. interface Transportable extends Movable { /*…*/ }
C. class Movable implements Transportable { /*…*/ }
D. interface Transportable implements Movable { /*…*/ }
Answer: B
Question No : 97

Click the Exhibit button.
Which class has a superclass relationship?

A. Z
B. Y
C. X
D. W
Answer: B
Question No : 98

Which two symbols are used to indicate the visibility of an attribute in UML? (Choose two.)
A. –
B. +
C. &
D. $
E. *
Answer: A,B
Question No : 99

Which two are valid examples of interface implementation? (Choose two.)
A. class C implements D { } B. class C implements D E { }
C. class C extends D { }
D. class C implements D, E { }
E. class C extends D, E { }
F. class C extends D, implements E { }
Answer: A,D
Question No : 100

Given:
6.
int time = 12;

7.
if ( time < 12 ) {

8.
System.out.println(“Good morning”);

9.
}

10.
// insert code here

11.
System.out.println(“Good afternoon”);

12.
}

13.
else if ( time >= 18 ) {

14.
System.out.println(“Good evening”);

15.
}
Which three, inserted independently at line 10, produce the output Good afternoon? (Choose three.)
A. else if ( time > 12 || time <= 18 ) {
B. else if ( time > 12 && time >= 18 ) {
C. if ( time >= 12 && time < 18 ) {
D. else if ( time >= 12 || time < 18 ) {
E. else if ( time < 12 || time > 18) {
Answer: A,C,D
Question No : 101

Which two are true about the relationship “A keyboard has 101 keys.”? (Choose two.)
A. This is a many-to-many relationship.
B. This is a composition relationship.
C. This is a not a composition relationship.
D. This is a one-to-one relationship.
E. This is a one-to-many relationship.
Answer: B,E
Question No : 102

Given:
14.
class Dog {

15.
String name;

16.
public static void main(String [] args) {

17.
Dog d1 = new Dog();

18.
Dog d2 = new Dog();

19.
d1.name = “Aiko”;

20.
d2.name = “Aiko”;

21.
if (d1 == d2) System.out.print(“== “);

22.
if (d1.equals(d2)) System.out.println(“dot =”);

23.
}

24.
}
What is the result?
A. == dot =
B. Compilation fails.
C. dot =
D. No output is produced.
E. ==
F. The result is unpredictable.
Answer: D
Question No : 103

You have developed a MIDlet that runs on a Java-enabled Personal Digital Assistant (PDA) device. Now, your employer has asked you to port the MIDlet to run on other Java platforms. Which is true?
A. The MIDlet is NOT guaranteed to run on a Java technology-enabled phone.
B. The MIDlet can run within a standard web browser.
C. The MIDlet is 100% portable across all J2ME devices.
D. The MIDlet is guaranteed to run correctly under J2SE.
Answer: A
Question No : 104

Click the Exhibit button.
Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. foo is an operation
B. foo is an attribute
C. foo is private
D. foo is public
Answer: B,D
Question No : 105

Given:
17. class B { }
Which demonstrates inheritance?
A. class A extends B { }
B. class A this B { }
C. class A super B { }
D. class A implements B { }
Answer: A
Question No : 106

Given:
17. class B { }
Which demonstrates inheritance?
A. class A this B { }
B. class A extends B { }
C. class A super B { }
D. class A implements B { }
Answer: B
Question No : 107

Given:
1.
abstract class A {}

2.
class B {}

3.
interface C {}

4.
interface D {}

5.
// insert code here
Which, inserted at line 5, results in a compilation failure?
A. class E implements C {}
B. class E extends A, B {}
C. class E extends A {}
D. class E implements C, D {}
E. interface E extends C, D {}
F. class E extends B implements D {}
Answer: B
Question No : 108

Given:
5.
// insert code here

6.
public abstract void bark();

7.
}

8.

9.
// insert code here

10.
public void bark() {

11.
System.out.println(“woof”);

12.
}

13.
}
Which, inserted at lines 5 and 9, allows the file to compile?
A. 5. abstract Dog {
9. public class Poodle extends Dog {
B. 5. class Dog {
9. public class Poodle extends Dog {
C. 5. abstract Dog {
9. public class Poodle implements Dog {
D. 5. abstract class Dog {
9. public class Poodle implements Dog {
E. 5. class Dog {
9. public class Poodle implements Dog {
F. 5. abstract class Dog {
9. public class Poodle extends Dog {
Answer: F
Question No : 109

Click the Task button. Which is true?
A. A is an instance of B.
B. A extends B.
C. A implements B.
D. B extends A.
E. This is NOT valid UML notation.
F. B implements A.
G. B is an instance of A.
Answer: C

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Question: 26
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management’s objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning

Answer: B
Question: 27
You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader

Answer: C
Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning

Answer: C
Question: 29
Val IT is a suite of documents that provide a framework for the governance of IT investments, produced by the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio management. Drag and drop the correct domain (‘Portfolio management’) next to the IT processes defined by Val IT.

A.
Answer: A
Question: 30
What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
Answer: D
Which of the following sub-processes of Service Portfolio Management is used to define the overall goals that the service provider should follow in its development based on the outcome of Strategic Service Assessment?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Strategic Service Assessment
C. Service Strategy Definition
D. Strategic Planning

Answer: C
Question: 32
Which of the following are the main goals of Broadcasting Board of Governors (BBG)’s strategic plan
2008-2013?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. It employs modern communication techniques and technologies.
B. It builds on our reach and impact within the muslim world.
C. It engages the world in conversation about England.
D. It enhances program delivery across all platforms.

Answer: A,B,D
Question: 33
Which of the following types of IT organizational structures states that all IT decision-making and the IT budget are in one place, much easier to manage, and require much less effort to organize?
A. Decentralized
B. Federated
C. Project-based
D. Centralized

Answer: D
Question: 34
A service provider guarantees for end-to-end network traffic performance to a customer. Which of the following types of agreement is this?
A. LA
B. VPN
C. NDA
D. SLA

Answer: D
Question: 35
Which of the following domains of COBIT covers areas such as the execution of the applications within the IT system and its results as well as the support processes that enable the effective and efficient execution of these IT systems?
A. Deliver and Support
B. Acquire and Implement
C. Monitor and Evaluate
D. Plan and Organize

Answer: A
Question: 36
Gary has identified a project risk that could injure project team members. He does not want to accept any risk where someone could become injured on this project so he hires a professional vendor to complete this portion of the project work. This workaround to the risk event is known as what type of risk response?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Transference

Answer: D
Question: 37
Management has asked you to perform a risk audit and report back on the results. Bonny, a project team member asks you what a risk audit is. What do you tell Bonny?
A. A risk audit is a review of the effectiveness of the risk responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes, as well as the effectiveness of the risk management process.
B. A risk audit is a review of all the risks that have yet to occur and what their probability of happening are.
C. A risk audit is an audit of all the risks that have occurred in the project and what their true impact on cost and time has been.
D. A risk audit is a review of all the risk probability and impact for the risks, which are still present in the project but which have not yet occurred.

Answer: A
Wendy is the project manager of the FBL project for your company. She has identified several risks within her project and has created a risk contingency reserve of $45,000 total. Her project is nearly complete and many of the risks have not happened in the project. What should Wendy do with the funds in the contingency reserve?
A. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are transferred to the project budget.
B. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until all of the risks have passed.
C. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until the project is closed.
D. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are released.

Answer: D
Question: 39
Which of the following frameworks defines ERM as a process, effected by an entity’s board of directors, management, and other personnel, applied in strategy setting and across the enterprise?
A. COBIT
B. COSO ERM framework
C. Casualty Actuarial Society framework
D. Val IT

Answer: B
Question: 40
The IT strategy formulation process consists of four steps to provide guidance to all who are involved. Which of the following steps are performed in the IT strategy formulation process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Decide how to get from here to there.
B. Evaluate changes.
C. Assess process maturity.
D. Map out the big picture.

Answer: A,B,D
Question: 41
Which of the following concepts is a semi-standard structured report supported by proven design methods and automation tools that can be used by managers to keep track of the execution of activities by staff within their control and monitor the consequences arising from these actions?
A. Total Security Management
B. Balanced Scorecard (BSC)
C. Total Quality Management
D. Six Sigma

Answer: B
Question: 42
Drag and drop the various architecture domains for TOGAF at the appropriate places.

A.
Answer: A
Question: 43
The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is a set of concepts and policies for managing information technology (IT) infrastructure, development, and operations. Drag and drop the ITIL processes that focus on service operation, i.e. operational processes in Service Support, in the correct places.
A.

Answer: A
Question: 44
You are the project manager of the HJK project for your organization. You and the project team have created risk responses for many of the risk events in the project. A teaming agreement is an example of what risk response?
A. Mitigation
B. Sharing
C. Transference
D. Acceptance

Answer: B
Question: 45
Which of the following is the main objective of business process outsourcing?
A. Realigning business process with business strategy
B. Permitting the enterprise to focus on core main competences
C. Optimizing business processes
D. Increasing the automation of business processes

Answer: B
In which of the following phases of the SDLC does the software and other components of the system faithfully incorporate the design specifications and provide proper documentation and training?
A. Design
B. Initiation
C. Programming and training
D. Evaluation and acceptance

Answer: C
Question: 47
You are the project manager of a newly formed project to create a new manufacturing facility. You are working with a business analyst to identify, document, and prioritize stakeholders’ needs for the facility. You’ll also need to quantify any subjective terms and needs to define the project scope. What is this process called?
A. Requirements analysis
B. Project scope statement creation
C. Requirements gathering
D. Stakeholder analysis

Answer: D
Question: 48
IT Governance is used by the management to regulate the Information Systems, to accomplish its
objectives. IT governance forms an integral part of corporate governance. Which of the following
elements are required to implement a good IT governance framework?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Communication
B. Structure
C. Project
D. Process

Answer: A,B,D
Which of the following roles is responsible for review and risk analysis of all contracts on a regular basis?
A. The Service Catalogue Manager
B. The Supplier Manager
C. The Configuration Manager
D. The IT Service Continuity Manager

Answer: B
Question: 50
All projects that are presented in your organization must go through a board to review the return on investment, risk, and worthiness of a project. All projects are considered but not all projects are initiated. What is the name of the process that this board is completing in your organization?
A. Project selection committee
B. Change governance
C. Project portfolio management
D. Project portfolio management board

Answer: C
Question: 51
Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management enables portfolio managers to include or exclude investments, change start and end-dates, adjust budgets and reevaluate priorities?
A. Integrated Capability
B. Portfolio Planning Analysis
C. Portfolio What-If Planning
D. Portfolio Management

Answer: C
Question: 52
Fred is the project manager of the PKL project. He is working with his project team to complete the quantitative risk analysis process as a part of risk management planning. Fred understands that once the quantitative risk analysis process is complete, the process will need to be completed again in at least two other times in the project. When will the quantitative risk analysis process need to be repeated?
A. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the risk response planning and as a part of monitoring and controlling.
B. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the plan risk response planning and as part of procurement.
C. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after new risks are identified and as pa of monitoring and controlling.
D. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the cost management planning an as a part of monitoring and controlling.

Answer: A
Question: 53
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. There has been a delay in your project work that is adversely affecting the project schedule. You decided, with your stakeholders’ approval, to fast track the project work to get the project done faster. When you fast track the project which of the following are likely to increase?
A. Costs
B. Risks
C. Human resource needs
D. Quality control concerns

Answer: B
Question: 54
Which of the following processes ensures that all vital assets and resources of the organization are safeguarded?
A. Defining Resource Requirements process
B. Cost estimating process
C. Vendor contract administration process
D. Risk management process

Answer: D
Question: 55
The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is a set of concepts and policies for managing information technology (IT) infrastructure, development, and operations. Drag and drop the ITIL processes that focus on service planning, i.e. tactical processes in Service Delivery, in the correct places.
A.

Answer: A
Question: 56
In software development, which of the following analysis is used to document the services and functions that have been accidentally left out, deliberately eliminated or still need to be developed?
A. Vulnerability analysis
B. Cost-benefit analysis
C. Requirement analysis
D. Gap analysis

Answer: D
Question: 57
The entry points to Service Strategy are referred to as “the Four Ps”. They identify the different forms a service strategy may take. Which of the following is a correct list of the ‘Four Ps’?
A. People, Products, Partners, and Profit
B. People, Potential, Products, and Performance
C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, and Profit
D. Perspective, Position, Plan, and Pattern

Answer: D
Question: 58
Melody is the project manager for her organization. She has created a risk response to conduct more tests on the software her project is creating. The identified risk that prompted this response was that the software is mission-critical and must be flawless before it can be put into product. What type of a risk response has Melody used in this scenario?
A. Transference
B. Enhance
C. Avoidance
D. Mitigation

Answer: D
Question: 59
Which of the following are the roles of a CIO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Standardizes architecture & technology.
B. Defines value creation roles within IT.
C. Provides IT infrastructure to facilitate knowledge & information creation/sharing.
D. Establishes business priorities & allocates resources for IT performance.

Answer: A,B,C
Elizabeth is a project manager for her organization and she finds risk management to be very difficult for her to manage. She asks you, a lead project manager, at what stage in the project will risk management become easier. What answer best resolves the difficulty of risk management practices and the effort required?
A. Risk management only becomes easier the more often it is practiced.
B. Risk management only becomes easier when the project is closed.
C. Risk management is an iterative process and never becomes easier.
D. Risk management only becomes easier when the project moves into project execution.

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 41
Which documents should the Project Manager for a system integrator review with the customer to manage long-term expectations approximately?
A. Issues Log and Training Plan.
B. Service Level Agreement and Change Order Procedures.
C. Business Process Analysis Document and Gap Analysis.
D. User Technical Documentation and Implementation Schedule.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 42
A mainframe-based company would like to make bills available online while continuing to mail them to the customer. Customers, as well as customer service personnel, will view these bills. What type of solution is MOST appropriate?
A. COLD/Enterprise Report Management (ERM)
B. Document Management System (DMS)
C. Web Content Management System (WCMS)
D. High volume scan subsystem
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 43
The Document Management System (DMS) will be backed up weekly with media being reused after becoming 30 days old. Which media type is MOST appropriate for this type of usage?
A. CD -R
B. DVD +R
C. Tape
D. DVD -R
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following standards allows typical office applications to have access to document management
systems?
A. SQL
B. JAVA
C. ODMA
D. ActiveX
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 45
A company states that they must keep accounting documents for seven years. This information is MOST relevant when:
A. determining scanned image resolutions.
B. selecting scanner throughput.
C. determining Document Management System (DMS) retention policies.
D. determining DMS security roles.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 46
A potential risk to a project could be:
A. regular Project Manager meetings.
B. a risk analysis session.
C. creating an assumptions document.
D. allowing scope creep.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
A system implementation is complete when which of the following has occurred?
A. All users have been trained and are able to use the system.
B. All system components have been installed and the system runs well.
C. The system administrators have reviewed the system and accepted responsibility for it.
D. The completion standards defined in the agreement have been met and the system performs as described.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 48
Documents on an integrated server are increasing in volume and need to be available in an online status. Which of the following methods is the MOST appropriate regarding low cost, ease of upgrade, and management?
A. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
B. Storage Area Network (SAN)
C. RAID
D. DVD
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 49
In reviewing the requirements section of a Request For Information (RFI) the consultant notes that the customer is seeking a Computer Output to Laser Disk (COLD) solution. The consultants Electronic Document Management System (EDMS) does not output to COLD but rather to RAID. Which option is the BEST solution for the consultant?
A. Do not respond to the RFI. It is not worth the effort given the incompatibility of the technology.
B. Respond to the RFI noting that although COLD has many benefits, most of the benefits can be achieved through RAID with much less cost.
C. Respond to the RFI stating that COLD can be implemented via RAID. Develop the justification in a detailed implementation plan.
D. Respond to the RFI by stating that COLD can be implemented using microfilm. Develop the justification in a detailed implementation plan.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 50
The completion standards defined in the agreement have been met and the system performs as described.
A. Use RAID5 SCSI devices.
B. Work two shifts per day.
C. Produce a back-up scanner.
D. Invest in a single high-quality scanner.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 51
The accounting department produces 175 documents per day. 20% of those documents are faxes with the rest being printed single page orders. Faxes do not require scanning. How many scanned images will the accounting department produce per a five day work week?
A. 140 images
B. 175 images
C. 700 images
D. 875 images
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 52
A company has a vision of all employees having access to a common, user customizable web interface where they will gain access to all corporate applications needed. The company is asking for a:
A. Customer Relationship Management (CRM) system.
B. web application server.
C. Windows Desktop application.
D. portal interface.
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 53
The accounting department has 400,000 images in a jukebox located in the computer room. They expect
the volume to increase by 50% next month. So far, image retrieval response is fair. Which of the following changes will improve performance with a minimal investment?
A. Physically move the jukebox to the accounting department.
B. Move the bridge inside the network segment of the accounting department.
C. Move the jukebox inside the network segment of the accounting department.
D. Move the database inside the network segment of the accounting department.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
When identifying the impact of the proposed solution on an existing network, the following MUST be considered:
A. TWAIN or ISIS scanners.
B. peak capture load.
C. number of display terminals.
D. flatbed or sheet-fed scanners.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 55
The technician is required to implement a proof-of-concept for a proposed solution. Which of the following would absolutely be included on the proof-of-concept document?
A. Final purchase price for the software
B. Software escrow agreement
C. Required items to be tested and proved
D. Purchase order terms and conditions
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 56

What are common levels of security when accessing a document in a Document Management System?
A. Read-only, write access and full access.
B. A hidden document and an unhidden document.
C. A protected document and an unprotected document.
D. No access, read access, write access and delete access.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 57
A client has requested that proof of OCR accuracy of the proposed solution be provided. The client is convinced that since the OCR engine has 99% accuracy, indexing is not necessary. To provide justification for including indexing in the solution, seven pages (with each page having 5,000 characters) have been scanned. How many characters will NOT be accurately recognized?
A. 30
B. 35
C. 300
D. 350
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 58
Which of the following ways to obtain information for a requirements document would render the BEST information?
A. Viewing the company website
B. Reading the companys Request For Information (RFI)
C. Interactive meeting with line-of-business managers
D. Reading the organizations annual report
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 59
A large volume of surveys are distributed, returned, and scanned. These surveys have text boxes and
check boxes. Which is the best technology for capturing these documents, indexing them, and extracting the data?
A. OCR/ICR
B. Workflow
C. Forms processing
D. Document Imaging
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following would be considered a project?
A. The daily backup of scanned images
B. The implementation of an enterprise content system
C. Adding a new user to the document management security database
D. The continual improvement of a business process
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 61
The customers help desk requires remote management of the devices proposed. The proposed solution only supports Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) discovery as a means to monitor the devices. To ensure that this proposal meets the customers requirements, this item should be discussed with the:
A. end-user.
B. help desk.
C. IT department.
D. Chief Information Officer (CIO).
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 62
Certkiller has determined that it should make use of a high-volume, enterprise-oriented SQL compliant
database solution. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate choice for the company?
A. DB2
B. Oracle
C. Sybase
D. Microsoft Access
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 63
The scanned file size of an 8.5 x 11 inches (A4) page with 300 dpi (12 dots per mm) resolution and a bit depth of one at TIFF Group 4 compression is:
A. 25 KB.
B. 50 KB
C. 75 KB.
D. 100 KB.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 64
During Document Management System (DMS) implementation, a scope change occurs:
A. when a defined task has been completed.
B. when a modification to the agreed project plan has occurred.
C. immediately after signing off on the project.
D. when the project has been completed.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 65
A client has to output documents and their associated metadata to many disparate systems, most of
which are not controlled by the client. Which of the following technologies would best facilitate this output?
A. XML
B. API
C. DDE
D. BLOBs
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 66
A financial services company receives 90,000 one-page documents per day in one batch. All scanning must be completed within one hour of receipt without exception. Failure to meet the one-hour deadline has grave financial consequences. The company has allocated enough document preparation personnel to keep the scanners fully fed. Which of the following scanner configurations should be recommended?
A. Five 300 pages per minute (ppm) scanners
B. Eight 200 ppm scanners
C. Nine 200 ppm scanners
D. Ten 150 ppm scanners
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 67
A scanning operator in a law firm will be scanning a large volume of documents that will be submitted electronically to a court. The scanning operator should have knowledge of:
A. Printer Control Language (PCL).
B. imprinting.
C. endorsing.
D. TIFF tags.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 68
When a disaster recover plan is designed, a company should do which of the following?
A. Hire a records manager.
B. Move all of the records off site.
C. Consider the cost implementation.
D. Identify the vital records within the organization.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 69
A title company wishes to scope out its residential mortgage packaging business process. All of the mortgage packets are internally received at a central office. How should a consultant next proceed in the identification phase?
A. Locate key stakeholder groups and observe the workflow in action
B. Conduct focus groups with members of each department
C. Develop a detailed process workflow and refer back to all the participating decision makers
D. Conduct an electronic survey to all the customers employees documenting the responses in a project database
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 70
While reviewing a projects proposed timeline, it is found that the Document Management System (DMS) rollout schedule is unrealistic. A discussion should be held FIRST with the:
A. Chief Executive Officer (CEO).
B. project sponsor.
C. end-users.
D. system storage managers.
Answer: B

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QUESTION 26
HP LeftHand 4000 Storage solutions are an excellent fit for which type of customer environments?
A. multi data center environments in large enterprises with over 1500 users
B. environments with multi-vendor storage infrastructure and “big data” analysis requirements
C. environments with a variety of virtual servers, client virtualization, database, and email
D. environments with a multi-vendor server, storage, and networking infrastructure Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Collaboration, training, and consumerization are all affecting enterprise network video traffic. What percentage of enterprise traffic is associated with video?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
The storage industry, more than other IT areas, is currently experiencing a major technology change. What is the key reason for this change?
A. Many storage systems are not built to handle big data, which requires a fully virtualized environment.
B. Many customers are moving to cloud-based service delivery and do not have the IT infrastructure nor storage capacity to cope with the increased data demands.
C. Many storage systems today, whether they are monolithic or modular, can handle only application-unique data.
D. Most storage systems available today were designed to cope with IT requirements of 15-20 years ago and are built to handle application-unique silos, predictable workloads, and structured data.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
A growing number of people have phones and other devices in the workplace that are not approved or supported by their IT organization. This is commonly called Bring Your Own Device or BYOD. What is the industry term for this trend?
A. the development of web devices
B. the consumerization of IT
C. the personalization of web services
D. the commoditization of IT
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
What is the HP Networking product that supports AllianceONE partner solutions?
A. HP Virtual Connect
B. HP 5920
C. HP Services zl Module

D. HP 5800
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
According to Gartner predictions for 2015, what percentage of applications will be virtualized?
A. 30%
B. 58%
C. 89%

D. 99%
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 32
HP FlexNetwork was designed to meet the needs of virtualized environments that drive up “East- West” network traffic flows. Which type of traffic is this?
A. server-to-server traffic
B. server-to-backup storage traffic
C. server-to-storage traffic
D. user-to-server traffic
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
What is predicted to happen by the end of 2012 as a result of private, public, and hybrid clouds?
A. Over $100 million will be spent on cloud offerings.
B. Over 50% of workloads will be virtualized.
C. Almost 90% of companies will support BYOD.
D. Mobile applications will experience 60% growth.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
How many HP 12500 data center core and distribution switches can be linked to provide scalable network capacity?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
With HP 3PAR autonomic management of storage capacity, customer case studies and analyst reports show what amount of increased storage management efficiency?
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
In addition to utility and cloud storage and deduplication, what are the fastest growing sub- segments within Storage? (Select two.)
A. block-based storage
B. iSCSI SAN
C. mission-critical storage
D. Scale-out NAS
E. tape back-up
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37
Which statement best describes the HP Converged Storage approach?
A. HP Converged Storage removes the boundary between server, storage, and network.
B. HP Converged Storage provides a totally integrated networking and storage solution.
C. HP Converged Storage provides an automated route for backups.
D. HP Converged Storage delivers a faster time to full virtualization across the storage infrastructure.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
What drives data center server-to-server traffic? (Select two.)
A. real-time analytics
B. virtualization
C. big data
D. messaging systems
E. federated applications

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 39
Which device supports 10 GB and 40 GB Ethernet networks?
A. HP 5800
B. HP 5820
C. HP 5830
D. HP 5900
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
How does HP Enhanced Battery Management technology benefit customers?
A. It extends standard warranty of HP UPSs up to 12 kVA at no additional cost.
B. It enables hot-swapping, which makes it easy to keep an HP UPS in top condition.
C. It provides remote management, monitoring, and control of HP UPSs.
D. It significantly extends battery service life and reduces recharge time.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
You have been working with your customer on a solution and have identified the business value for the key decision makers. The next major step is to negotiate the deal with the customer to be able to progress to a purchase order. What will you do to keep control of the negotiation discussions?
A. Adopt a firm stance on your proposal, refusing to make changes.
B. Establish all of the customer’s requirements (e.g., specification, lead-times, support costs, payment terms) before negotiating.
C. Start to negotiate the deal and then establish all of the customer’s requirements (e.g., specification, lead-times, support costs, payment terms).
D. Submit your offer to the customer before knowing their intended investment level.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which feature will help a customer realize a cost savings of $1,828 USD, assuming there is HP equipment inside the rack and that energy costs 10 cents per kWh?
A. a Platinum Plus power supply with 94% efficiency
B. a rack that is 1075mm deep
C. a system that automatically discovers ProLiant Servers and c7000 BladeSystem Enclosures
D. a door that has 26% more open area than any other vendor’s rack

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 43
What percentage of business processes are run on IT platforms?
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
Which statement most accurately describes the HP Cloud Discovery Workshop?
A. It helps participants assess the potential and practicalities of using cloud-based solutions for the long-term preservation of digital materials, focusing particularly on data that originates from research or that supports research processes.
B. It provides guidance on how to address the high costs associated with siloed IT infrastructure and provides a comparison with other similar industries.
C. It provides guidance on the optimum data center upgrade path, including a cross server and storage utilization survey to determine cost reductions and cost avoidance opportunities.
D. It provides education on the cloud and multi-sourcing service delivery strategies; explanations of the possibilities, risks, and business implications of the cloud; and recommendations for using the cloud as part of a service provider and portfolio strategy.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Which statement best explains how HP Power Discovery Services help with deployment of power?
A. Error-prone and time-consuming manual configuration is eliminated.
B. Downtime is eliminated through the monitoring of power levels.
C. Power wiring is automatically configured.
D. 50% less power is required because of accurate measurement of power levels.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
Which type of memory cards should you recommend to a customer with a memory-intensive application requiring 768GB memory on a DL380 Gen8 server?
A. LRDIMMs
B. DDR3-1066
C. DDR3-1600
D. DDR3L-1333
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 47
Which HP Storage product was used to showcase 1.5 million IOPS with a DL580 and was also used by Wine.com to increase transaction throughput by 1,800%?
A. 1500 RPM SAS drive

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QUESTION 71
An Isilon customer implemented a retention period at the directory level. They set individual retention periods on individual files within those directories.
Which retention periods will be enforced?
A. Latest retention period
B. Earliest retention period
C. File-level retention
D. Directory-level retention

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 72
An Isilon customer wants to more effectively manage their storage and thereby achieve performance improvements. Which tool will help improve workflow performance on their cluster?
A. InsightIQ
B. Isilon SNMP MIB
C. SyncIQ
D. SmartPools

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 73
In an Isilon environment, how is InsightIQ installed?
A. Deployed as a virtual appliance
B. Installed on a FreeBSD server
C. Deployed on a Windows 64-bit server
D. Installed on an Isilon cluster

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
On an Isilon cluster, how much space should be reserved for snapshots by default?
A. 0%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 75
How does Isilon SnapshotIQ use storage for snapshots?
A. Through Changed Block Tracking and only changed data blocks are saved
B. Works on the file level and saves the entire file no matter what has changed
C. Works with 4 KiB blocks and will always use that amount of storage, no matter what has changed
D. Through Changed Block Tracking and always uses a 4 KiB block, even if the data changed is less than that amount

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 76
A customer is considering moving their NAS data over to Isilon systems. They want to know if the Isilon systems have any limitations regarding snapshots.
What explanation can be provided?
A. There is no hard limit on snapshots.
B. There is a limit of 1024 snapshots per cluster.
C. There is a limit of 2048 snapshots per cluster.
D. There is a limit of 2048 snapshots per directory.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 77
A customer created one month of snapshots; one snapshot every 8 hours for 30 days on an Isilon cluster using SnapshotIQ. They are now deleting the snapshots randomly and experiencing overhead to the cluster.
How can the snapshots be removed while avoiding the overhead caused by this process?
A. Delete the snapshots in order
B. Use SmartPools to move the snapshot data to a different tier
C. Snapshots cannot be deleted
D. Remove the directory

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 78
An Isilon customer wants to have different snapshot policies and schedules on the same directory. Why is this possible on an Isilon cluster?
A. SnapshotIQ snaps at the directory level rather than the volume level
B. All snapshots are scheduled through the command line interface
C. A third-party product is used by SnapshotIQ to create different schedules and policies on a directory
D. SnapshotIQ snaps at the volume level rather than the directory level

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 79
Using Isilon SnapshotIQ, how many snapshots can be created at the directory level?
A. 8
B. 96
C. 256 D. 1024
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 80
A customer has an SMB file directory with 375 TB of data on the primary cluster with a protection level of N +3:1. They want to replicate this directory to the secondary cluster. They are interested in the possibility of setting protection levels on the target cluster.
Which target directory protection level information can be provided?
A. Does not need to match the source and is configured separately on the target cluster
B. Must match the source and is configured separately on the target cluster
C. Cannot be altered and is controlled by SyncIQ
D. Can be altered by the command line interface and is controlled by SyncIQ

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
A customer created eight SyncIQ policies on a 6-node Isilon cluster. The policies all start at midnight. The customer is experiencing issues where several jobs are paused while others continue to run. This is delaying the overall replication of data.
What is the most likely reason for the pausing of some of the SyncIQ jobs?
A. An Isilon cluster can only have five concurrent SyncIQ jobs running at the same time.
B. An Isilon cluster can only have one SyncIQ job running at any one time.
C. SyncIQ only allows one job per node. This cluster can only run six SyncIQ jobs concurrently.
D. SyncIQ will stagger the start of all SyncIQ jobs. Jobs after the first job are delayed.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 82
A customer has 10 files that are each 10 MB in size. They created two clones of each file on their source cluster. They now want to use SyncIQ to replicate the original files and the cloned files to a target cluster.
Excluding protection overhead, how much disk space will the files use on the target cluster?
A. 100 MB
B. 200 MB
C. 300 MB
D. 600 MB
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
Which block size is used by Isilon SyncIQ to transfer data?
A. 2 KB
B. 4 KB
C. 6 KB

D. 8 KB
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 84
A customer has two data centers (Site A and Site B). There is an Isilon cluster in each data center and they use SyncIQ to replicate data between the two data centers.
You have been reviewing their disaster recovery plan and found the following:
The policies specify that SyncIQ runs a replication job every 2 hours and that the job finishes within 1 hour.
Three additional hours will be needed to get servers and the network redirected to work from Site

What is the Recovery Point Objective in this plan?

A. 2 Hours
B. 3 Hours
C. 4 Hours
D. 5 hours

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
A customer has two data centers (Site A and Site B).There is an Isilon cluster in each data center and they
use SyncIQ to replicate data between the two data centers.

You have reviewed their disaster recovery plan and found the following:
The policies specify that SyncIQ runs a replication job every 3 hours and that the job finishes within 1 hour.
Three additional hours will be needed to get servers and the network redirected to work from Site B.

What is the Recovery Point Objective in this plan?

A. 2 Hours
B. 3 Hours
C. 4 Hours
D. 5 Hours

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 86
An Isilon customer has set up a replication policy between a primary cluster and a secondary cluster. After the initial synchronization of the clusters, the primary cluster starts to display some issues. The customer initiates a failover operation between the two clusters.
During the failover, the primary cluster becomes fully operational again. The customer wants to stop the failover operation between the two clusters.
What is the best way to stop the failover operation and continue using the primary cluster?
A. Initiate a failover revert on the secondary cluster
B. Initiate a failover revert on the primary cluster
C. Nothing; this is an automatic process
D. Delete the primary clusters’ snapshot of this data

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 87
An Isilon customer created a scheduled SyncIQ policy to replicate data from an Enterprise-mode SmartLock directory. The source cluster is now unusable and the target cluster does not automatically allow writes to the data in the replicated SmartLock directory.
What is the reason why the target cluster did not automatically allow writes of the data?
A. SyncIQ Automated failover is not supported for SmartLock directories; however, manual failover is allowed.
B. Automated failover and manual failover are not allowed on SmartLock directories on the target cluster.
C. A SyncIQ job was running while the source cluster became unusable, thereby removing all data on the target directory.
D. SnapshotIQ was not licensed on the target cluster; the snapshot of the directory is not available for use by SyncIQ.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
An Isilon customer has two 5-node clusters; one for production and one for disaster recovery (DR). The customer’s workflows are replicated to the DR cluster through SyncIQ on individual schedules. They shut down their production cluster for a scheduled DR test, failed over to the DR cluster, and continue their DR testing.
Assume both clusters have identical shares, exports, and user authentication. Additionally, assume the client applications have been stopped and the DNS re-pointed. Which SyncIQ Policy method should be used to continue production operations?
A. Revert
B. Initiate Manual Failback
C. Initiate Automated Failback
D. No change is needed

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
An Isilon customer has two 5-node clusters; one for production and one for disaster recovery (DR). The customer’s workflows are replicated to the DR cluster through SyncIQ on individual schedules. They have shut down their production cluster for scheduled maintenance, failed over to the DR cluster, and are currently operating from the DR site. Assume both clusters have identical shares, exports, user authentication. In addition, assume the client applications have been stopped and the DNS re-pointed. What is the easiest SyncIQ Policy method to continue operations on production?
A. Initiate Automated Failback
B. Revert
C. Initiate Manual Failback
D. No change is needed

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 90
You set up a meeting to gather information on a new project with the IT manager and plan to use a workflow profile assessment (WPA) to document the requirements.
Why is it recommended to talk to as many stakeholders as possible?
A. Helps downstream personnel, such as implementation and delivery, to have a clearer understanding of the requirements.
B. Completing this document gives sales a list of who the stakeholders are at customer site.
C. Using workflow profile enables sales to take this information to EMC consulting for review to validate the configuration.
D. Using the WPA tool will give you the best “big picture” to see things such as block size, de- dupe, file size and volumes.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 71
A customer is suspicious of unauthorized access to their VNX file share. IT management needs to monitor user activity and access.
What can be done to accomplish this?
A. Enable and define the audit policy per CIFS server
B. Enable and configure CEPA on the VNX
C. Enable and configure CAVA on the VNX
D. Install Microsoft SCOM to monitor the VNX CIFS servers Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
A customer will be creating a VDM on a VNX. What is the size of the VDM root file system when it is created using the default method?
A. 1 GB
B. 64 MB
C. 128 MB
D. 512 MB
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
What feature is present in a physical Data Mover that is not present on a VDM?

A. FTP
B. Shares
C. Kerberos
D. Local groups
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
You are setting up VDM replication. What must the target VDM state be to successfully establish the replication?
A. Mounted
B. Loaded
C. Unmounted
D. PermUnloaded

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 75
A storage administrator has initiated a VDM failover. What information is replicated to the secondary site?
A. Password file
B. IP address
C. Network device
D. Security credentials

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 76
What is one of the benefits of using VDM for load balancing on a VNX?
A. Portability of CIFS servers between physical Data Movers
B. Round robin access of CIFS servers between Data Movers
C. Round robin access of CIFS shares between Data Movers
D. Portability of CIFS shares between physical Data Movers

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 77
A storage administrator has created multiple network interfaces on the Data Mover. While creating the CIFS server within a VDM, one network interface was selected. What action must be taken after the interface is modified?
A. Update the CIFS server with the interface changes
B. Restart CIFS services on the VDM
C. Restart CIFS services on the physical Data Mover
D. Update the VDM with the interface changes

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 78
Refer to the exhibit.

Once you commit to create the share, what is the expected outcome?
A. A local share on the VDM is created.
B. A global share on the VDM is created.
C. A user share on the VDM is created.
D. A share is not created.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 79
A customer is planning to move VDM between Data Movers.
What needs to be verified on the destination Data Mover before the action is taken?

A. The Data Mover contains no CIFS servers with same name as source
B. The network device is identical to the source
C. The file system sizes are identical to the source D. The network ports are identical to the source

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 80
Which statement is a characteristic of tree quotas?
A. A tree quota root directory cannot be a part of another tree quota.
B. Tree quotas can be set on existing directories.
C. A maximum of 16 tree quotas can be created on a single file system.
D. Even root users are restricted by tree quotas.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
An NFS user currently has 30 MB of data stored in a personal directory on a VNX. Their quota allocation allows up to 100 MB. However, they are unable to store additional data in this personal directory.
The user deleted two of their largest files in an attempt to free up additional space, but was unable to save all new files to the VNX. The user called the VNX administrator, who confirmed that the file system has additional storage capacity.
What could be the problem?
A. The file system is mounted as read only.
B. Transmission errors occurred when the user’s data was sent over the network.
C. The user has insufficient permissions to write new data to the desired location.
D. A quota was set for the maximum number of files allowed.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 82
Which statement is a characteristic of LACP?
A. LACP presents the greatest number of ports at the same speed.
B. LACP trunks can be created with any number of physical and virtual devices.
C. All clients receive an increase in throughput due to LACP increased bandwidth.
D. Full- and half-duplex Ethernet ports can be used to create the LACP trunk.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 83
You are trying to create a virtual network device in Unisphere under Settings > Network > Settings for File > Devices > Create.
Why is the physical device not displayed?
A. The device is already used.
B. You do not have permission to create devices.
C. The physical device is faulted.
D. There is no network cable plugged into the physical device.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 84
Which virtual network device can be configured as Active/Standby?
A. LACP
B. FSN
C. Ethernet channel
D. VLAN Tagging
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
When performing switch maintenance, a customer accidentally disconnects all network connections to an active VNX Data Mover, which has a standby Data Mover.
How does the VNX handle this situation?
A. The primary Data Mover remains active.
B. The active Data Mover immediately fails over.
C. The active Data Mover fails over after 30 seconds of lost connectivity.
D. The VNX notifies EMC Support about the problem.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 86
A customer would like to capture a NAR file with 26 hours of data outputted by Unisphere. What should the archive interval be set to?
A. 600 seconds
B. 300 seconds (default)
C. 60 seconds
D. 1200 seconds

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 87
Which three metrics can Unisphere QoS control?
A. Throughput, queue length, utilization
B. Bandwidth, response time, service time
C. Response time, bandwidth, throughput
D. Service time, seek distance, throughput

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 88
A customer has an application with a large sequential I/O pattern and wants to design the storage for the best possible performance.
Which design solution would you recommend?
A. Create one LUN per RAID group; present them to the host and use a Volume Manager to stripe across them.
B. Create one LUN per RAID group; create a striped metaLUN across all LUNs and present the metaLUN to the host.
C. Create multiple LUNs per RAID group; present them to the host and use a Volume Manager to stripe across them.
D. Create multiple LUNs per RAID group; create a striped metaLUN across all LUNs and present the metaLUN to the host.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 89
A customer maintains a mission-critical database with a small transaction logging file. The customer would like to have the transaction log share array resources with other applications while maintaining a specified response time for the database. What Unisphere Quality of Service control mechanism will provide the necessary functionality?
A. Limits
B. Cruise control
C. Fixed queue depth
D. Round robin

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 90
A customer has implemented Unisphere Quality of Service to ensure that an application obtains the resources necessary to meet the required service level based on a consistent IOPS level. However, when the storage administrator reviewed performance of the application, the IOPS were variable and lower than expected. Other applications are receiving exactly the resources defined through the performance policies. What might be the problem?
A. The cruise control is within its learning period.
B. The Unisphere QoS control engine did not start.
C. The queue depth was set improperly.
D. The IOPS limit for the application was set too high.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
When setting up QoS for a host’s LUNs, what software must be loaded on the host system?
A. None
B. Navisphere Host Agent
C. Navisphere Secure CLI
D. Server utility

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
A customer system has the watermark processing disabled. To which value will the low water mark (LWM) default?
A. 60%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 0%
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 93
What is the default cache page size in KB on a VNX?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 2

D. 4
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 94
A customer has reported degraded performance with several of the applications that run on a VNX. After going through the performance data on the array, you find that all the performance issues are centered around the same RAID 6 group, and that the RAID group is supplying 50 percent less IOPS than before.
What is the most likely reason?
A. The RAID group is being rebuilt.
B. The RAID group is trespassed.
C. Write cache is not configured.
D. The RAID group is being defragmented.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 95
Refer to the exhibit.

The Unisphere Analyzer data shows all disks in a VNX. Using EMC best practices, what would be the best way of allocating storage from the unbound disks?
A. RAID 5 (4+1) group with 300 GB SAS disks and one hot spare
B. RAID 5 (5+1) group with 300 GB SAS disks and one hot spare
C. RAID 5 (5+1) group with 300 GB SAS disks and no hot spare
D. RAID 5 (4+1) group with 300 GB SAS disks and no hot spare

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 96
Refer to the exhibit.

This VNX has the disks shown in the front view. They are all 300 GB 10K disks.
What is the maximum number of drives that you can add to a new RAID group in this situation?

A. 16
B. 15
C. 30
D. 26
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 97
Refer to the exhibit.

The array has only the disks shown on the exhibit. All disks in the array are 600 GB 15K drives. One disk is used as a hot spare.
What is the maximum number of disks you can add to a single pool?
A. 25
B. 29
C. 24

D. 16
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
What is the best way to set up a FAST VP pool on a VNX Block system running VNX OE for Block (v31)?
A. Five Flash disks in RAID 5 (4+1); five SAS disks in RAID 5 (4+1); six NL-SAS disks in RAID 6 (4+2).
B. Five Flash disks in RAID 5 (4+1); six SAS disks in RAID 6 (4+2); six NL-SAS disks in RAID 6 (4+2).
C. Five Flash disks in RAID 5 (4+1); five SAS disks in RAID 5 (4+1); eight NL-SAS disks in RAID 6 (6+2).
D. Five Flash disks in RAID 5 (4+1); five SAS disks in RAID 5 (4+1); five NL-SAS disks in RAID 5 (4+1).

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 99
In Unisphere Analyzer, what are two possible views when you right-click a RAID group?
A. LUN I/O Disk Detail & Performance Detail
B. Performance Detail & I/O Size Distribution Summary
C. LUN I/O Disk Detail & I/O Size Distribution Detail
D. Performance Detail & I/O Size Distribution Detail

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
You have collected four Analyzer archives (Day1.NAR, Day2.NAR, Day3.NAR and Day4.NAR) and would like to merge them into one. What is one way you can do this in Unisphere?
A. 1. Merge Day1.NAR and Day2.NAR into Days1_2.NAR
2.
Merge Day3.NAR and Day4.NAR into Days3_4.NAR

3.
Merge Days1_2.NAR and Days3_4.NAR into AllDays.NAR
B. 1. Merge Day1.NAR, Day2.NAR and Day3.NAR into Days1_2_3.NAR
2. Merge Days1_2_3.NAR with Day4.NAR into AllDays.NAR
C. Merge all four archives into AllDays.NAR at the same time.
D. You cannot merge Analyzer archives.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 101
Refer to the exhibits. Exhibit A

Exhibit B

Exhibit C

Exhibit D

Which SAN connectivity solution uses the EMC best practice for port group oversubscription on a Cisco 24-port module?
A. Exhibit 1
B. Exhibit 2
C. Exhibit 3
D. Exhibit 4

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 102
A customer needs to give a host 300 GB of disk space to improve performance. The VNX to be used has three RAID groups available.
RAID group 1 is RAID 5 (4+1) with 240 GB free

RAID group 2 is RAID 5 (4+1) with 220 GB free

RAID group 3 is RAID 5 (6+1) with 250 GB free
The utilization of each RAID group is minimal and all use 300 GB SAS drives. Keeping in mind the best practices, how would you create a metaLUN?
A. Striped with 100 GB on RAID group 1, RAID group 2 and RAID group 3.
B. Concatenated with 50 GB on RAID group 1 and 250 GB on RAID group 3.
C. Striped with 150 GB on RAID group 1 and RAID group 2.
D. Concatenated with 100 GB on RAID group 1, RAID group 2 and RAID group 3.
Correct Answer: C

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