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Exam Code: 70-696
Exam Name: Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 86

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-696 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 27
You need to get a project and its budget approved by your board, which of these options would be
the most appropriate action to take?
A. Ensure that all stakeholders are sent regular operational reports about the project
B. Organize a conference for board members to discuss the project in detail
C. Build a business-based project plan to present to senior management
D. Write a full report on your opinion of the project and those responsible
70-696 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 28
Which of these answers would NOT be a suitable area to include in your service ethics code of
conduct?
A. A list of expected behaviour to ensure that all Service Desk employees understand what the
organisation expects of them
B. Standards of moral and ethical behaviour
C. How to manage risk on behalf of the organisation
D. Specific techniques for dealing with difficult business partners
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 29
Which option best describes the expectations of the Service Desk’s users?
A. They have confidence that the Service Desk is in control of their Incident or Service Request
when speaking to a senior team member
B. Their incident is professionally managed and they receive consistent and courteous service
C. Their Incidents are resolved very quickly and they are periodically informed of progress
D. They are provided with good decision data and feedback on all their Incidents
70-696 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 30
You have recently been promoted to Service Desk Manager and you are keen to show how much
you wish to succeed in this role. Which statement best describes some of the skills that will help
you to succeed?
A. Excellent influencing skills, exemplary debating and creative writing skills
B. A University Degree in Computer Sciences and strong negotiating skills
C. Strong team building skills, excellent people-management and communication skills
D. Time management skills excellent technical and analytical skills
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 31
As a Service Desk Manager, which option best describes one of your key obligations?
A. Writing and agreeing SLAs
B. Developing Problem Management across IT
C. Aligning Service Desk goals with those of the organisation
D. Ensuring that staff welfare takes overall priority
70-696 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
Why is it important to integrate business and IT objectives?
A. To ensure that IT works towards the same goals as the business
B. To ensure that the development of IT services is in line with current industry best practice
C. To give the business confidence in the IT services function
D. To allow IT to be effectively built into every business area
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
Which option best describes strategic awareness? Strategic awareness is…
A. Understanding how IT services contribute to meeting organisational goals
B. Understanding the intention of the tactical plans of the organisation
C. Understanding how to acquire knowledge of the organisations operational plans
D. Understanding the day-to-day goals and objectives of the organisation
70-696 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 34
How can you best demonstrate understanding of your Service Desks strategic responsibilities?
A. Understand what activities your Service Desk should undertake to support the organizations
strategic plans
B. Advise senior management about your strategic management skills and experience
C. Provide detailed analyses of the Service Desks activities for the previous year
D. Provide strategic plans that detail the role of the Service Desk and how it can be utilised to
manage all IT Service operations
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 35
You want to develop your career and position within the organisation, what steps could you take to
improve your profile and influence?
A. Take the initiative in all business decisions
B. Display your acumen through strong judgement and decision making
C. Always ensure that your opinion is heard at meetings
D. Delegate as much of your work as possible
70-696 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 36
Which of these options is NOT an objective of financial management?
A. To ensure that the annual budget for the IT organisation is always reduced
B. To align IT service costs to business processes
C. To support the customer and the business by delivering value for money
D. To understand the cost of providing IT services
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
Which of these options is a financial management activity?
A. Showing how calculating user and customer billing demonstrates value for money
B. Delivering clear benefits from IT services over a one-year period
C. Accounting for fixed and variable losses in specific problem situations
D. Understanding how to calculate unit costs for the delivery of service
70-696 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 38
You have been informed that a company merger is planned which will potentially increase the
number of supported users by 15 percent. Why is it important for you to understand the
commercial management of the Service Desk?
A. To reduce Service Desk costs for the new business situation
B. To determine the impact of proposed services on the IT organisation
C. To produce regular progress reports on the results of the integration
D. To manage the professional development of the Service Desk people
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 39
Which option is the best description of Return on Investment (ROI)?
A. It is a method used to calculate the expected lifecycle of a product
B. It is an assessment of costs and profits
C. It is an assessment of costs and benefits
D. It is a method used to determine the percentage of profit to be reinvested
70-696 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 40
You need to write a business case for your new ITSM software system; which key element is it
appropriate to include?
A. A clear list of potential savings
B. The impact on board members of not buying the software
C. An ROI report on the technical and operational benefits
D. A specification for a CMDB
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which option best describes a purpose of Organisational Change Management?
A. To minimise the risk and interruption to users and services
B. To understand the impact of every change to IT services
C. To ensure that processes and procedures are kept constantly in alignment
D. To prevent abuse of the Change Management process by rogue emergency changes
70-696 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of these options best describes the benefits of using an Organisational Change
Management process?
A. It reduces risk and the cost of implementing individual Changes
B. It removes risk and involves stakeholders in the implementation of Changes
C. It improves the organisations performance and service delivery management Information
D. It reduces the adverse impact of Changes and ensures that only approved Changes are
implemented
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Updated: Jul 20, 2017
Q&As: 66

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QUESTION: 53
Why did you use this formula versus another formula?
Answer:
( R ÷ d2) was used instead of the formula for the sample standard deviation because
( R ÷ d2) considers only short term variation, while the formula for the sample standard
considers long term variation.
( R ÷ d2) assumes that the process is stable. If the process is not stable, the out of control
points will jump out of the control limits based on ( R ÷ d2). The ( R ÷ d2) limits are tighter
than limits based on the sample standard deviation.
QUESTION: 54
State the LSL and USL for the above process.
Answer:
LSL = 5.95 and USL = 6.05
QUESTION: 55
Calculate the actual process yield using the empirical data.
Answer:
80 ÷ 84 = 0.952
QUESTION: 56
Calculate the theoretical process yield using the normal distribution. Is this a reasonable
calculation? If yes, why? If no, why not?
Answer:
ZLSL= (5.95 – 6.024)/ 0.01139 = -6.4969, hence, P( X < -6.4969) = 0.0000
ZUSL= (6.05 – 6.024)/ 0.01139 = 2.2827, hence, P( X > -2.2827) = 0.0112
P (5.95 ≤ X ≤ 6.05) = 0.0000 + 0.0112 = 0.0112
The above calculation is not reasonable because the process is not in statistical control.
QUESTION: 57
Compute the actual DPMO from the empirical data.
Answer:
DPO = 1 – RTY = 1 – 0.952 = 0.048
DPMO = 1,000,000 x DPO = 1,000,000 x 0.048 = 48,000 DPMO
QUESTION: 58
Compute the theoretical DPMO using the normal distribution. Is this a reasonable
calculation? If yes, why? If no, why not?
Answer:
DPO = 0.0112
DPMO = 1,000,000 x 0.0112 = 11,200
The DPMO calculation is not reasonable because the process is not stable at this time.
QUESTION: 59
Compute the Process SigmA. Which DPMO should you use? Why?
Answer:
Process sigma assuming a 1.5 sigma shift in the mean for the empirical DPMO of 11,200 is
3.1 to 3.2.
Process sigma assuming a 1.5 sigma shift in the mean for the theoretical DPMO of 48,000 is
3.7 to 3.8.
Neither DPMO should be used because the process is not stable. A process sigma calculation
is not appropriate for this process at this time.
QUESTION: 60
Construct a control chart from the following data.
Answer:
70-357

QUESTION: 61
What type of data is in the above matrix?
Answer:
Classification type attribute data
QUESTION: 62
What type of control chart should be used to study the above data?
Answer:
p chart with constant subgroup size
QUESTION: 63
Use Minitab to construct a control chart for the above data.
Answer:
70-357

QUESTION: 64
Is the process stable? If not, on what days is it not stable?
Answer:
Days 8 and 22 are beyond the upper control limit.
QUESTION: 65
Analyze the following data set using a control chart.
Answer:
70-357

QUESTION: 66
What type of data is in the above matrix?
Answer:
Count type attribute data
QUESTION: 67
What type of control chart should be used to study the above data?
Answer:
c-chart
QUESTION: 68
Use Minitab to construct a control chart for the above data.
Answer:
70-357

QUESTION: 69
Is the process stable? If not, in what months is it not stable?
Answer:
Yes
QUESTION: 70
Construct a control chart for the following 3 years of weekly sales data for the Latin
American Division of a hospital supply company.

Answer:
Weekly Hospital Supply data is listed across the rows for 3 years
70-357

QUESTION: 71
What type of data is in the above matrix?
Answer:
Measurement data
QUESTION: 72
What type of control chart should be used to study the above data?
Answer:
An I-MR chart should be used dues to measurement data and a subgroup size of one.
QUESTION: 73
Use Minitab to construct a control chart for the above data.
Answer:
70-357

QUESTION: 74
Is the process stable? If not, in what weeks is it not stable?
Answer:
The process is stable.
QUESTION: 75
Explain the purpose of a Gage R&R study.
Answer:
The purpose of a Gage R&R study is to define the validity of a measurement system,
specifically, to estimate the proportion of observed variation due to unit-to-unit variation and
measurement variation.
QUESTION: 76
Construct a Gage R&R run chart from the following data.

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The Lead2exam 300-135 dumps PDF is set up as a series of trouble tickets in the topology mentioned above. There is a problem description and you have access to the consoles of simulated equipment to try and determine the cause. After you have investigated, you answer three questions to narrow down the cause and the solution, then you move on to the next ticket.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Routing and Switching
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Exam Code: 300-135
Total Questions: 82 Q&As

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  • The question style for the tickets is the same.
  • You are no longer allowed to abort a ticket. You must finish once started and you must answer in the order delivered.
  • The simple multiple choice questions are spread throughout the test instead of all being at the beginning.
  • The interface is different. There are no tabs for the Lead2exam 300-135. You just click “next” when you are finished with your answers.

300-135

Lead2exam Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Q&As

QUESTION 3
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch
network and suggest resolutions to the problems.

300-135

300-135

300-135

300-135

You have configured PVST+ load balancing between SW1 and the New_Switch in such a way that both the links E2/2 and E2/3 are utilized for traffic flow, which
component of the configuration is preventing PVST+ load balancing between SW1 and SW2 links
A. Port priority configuration on SW1
B. Port priority configuration on the New_Switch
C. Path cost configuration on SW1
D. Path cost configuration on the New_Switch
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here is the configuration found on the New_Switch:

300-135

This causes the port cost for link eth 1/3 to increase the path cost to 250 for all VLANs, making that link less preferred so that only eth 1/2 will be used.

 

 

QUESTION 4
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch
network and suggest resolutions to the problems.

300-135

300-135

300-135

300-135

Refer to the topology.
SW1 Switch Management IP address is not pingable from SW4. What could be the issue?
A. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk links between SW1 and SW4
B. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk links between SW1 and SW2
C. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk link between SW2 and SW4
D. Management VLAN ip address on SW4 is configured in wrong subnet
E. Management VLAN interface is shutdown on SW4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the network, VLAN 300 is called the Management VLAN. Based on the configurations shown below, SW1 has VLAN 300 configured with the IP address of
192.168.10.1/24, while on SW4 VLAN 300 has an IP address of 192.168.100.4/24, which is not in the same subnet.

300-135

300-135

 

Question Set 2
QUESTION 1
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration changes to the network rendering some locations
unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue.

300-135

300-135

300-135

300-135

300-135

R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly connected networks but nothing else. What is causing the
problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here we see that distribute list 3 has been applied to EIGRP on router R%, but access-list 3 contains only deny statements so this will effectively block all routing
advertisements from its two EIGRP neighbors, thus isolating R5 from the rest of the EIGRP network:

300-135

300-135

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The Most Professional Cisco 400-051 Dumps Is Your Study Guide

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400-051 Dumps

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QUESTION 17
Which is the default location of all kernel extensions (“kext” files) in Mac OS X v10.3?
A. /Library/Extensions/
B. /System/Extensions/
C. /System Folder/Extensions/
D. /System/Library/Extensions/

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
What can you use to find out the number of hops between your computer and another computer on an IP network?
A. Traceroute
B. Lookup
C. Whois
D. Ping

Correct Answer: A            070-346 pdf
QUESTION 19
Which three are useful steps in troubleshooting an issue where a webpage won’t load? (Choose three.)
A. Use Network Utility DNS Scan command to locate DNS servers on the network.
B. Verify the network settings in the Network pane of System Preferences.
C. Use Network Utility Ping command to test IP connectivity.
D. Use Network Utility Lookup tool to test known DNS servers.
E. Use System Profiler to review the Network Activity report.
F. Use Network Monitor to review the Activity Report.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 20
Which Mac OS X v10.3 utility is helpful when troubleshooting a computer’s Ethernet connectivity?
A. Network Utility
B. Activity Monitor
C. Network Monitor
D. Internet Connect

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which method below will NOT help you confirm that you have set up TCP/IP correctly?
A. Use the Ping feature in Network Utility
B. Transfer a file using Bluetooth File Exchange.
C. Open Internet Explorer and view an external webpage
D. Verify that you can successfully send mail from a configured mail account.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
To set up PPPoE, which port must you configure?
A. Modem
B. Ethernet
C. FireWire
D. AppleTalk

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Network administrators can create and distribute specific VPN configurations, which users can add to their systems by ___________.
A. Copying and pasting the Internet Connect application preferences at UserName>Library>Preferences>com.apple.internetconnect.plist
B. Choosing Import Configurations from the File menu of the Internet Connect application
C. Choosing Save and Open Configurations from the File menu of the Internet Connect application
D. Clicking the Import button in the Internal Modem window of the Internet Connect application

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Mac OS X v10.3 supports which kinds of VPN connections? (Choose all that apply.)
A. PPoE
B. L2TP
C. PPTP
D. NAT
E. P2P
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 25
The Lookup pane in Network Utility is used to _____________. (Choose all that apply).
A. Find the complete route between your computer and another computer on an IP network.
B. Determine which ports on a computer are closed.
C. Determine which ports on a computer are open.
D. Resolve domain names to IP addresses.
E. Resolve IP addresses to domain names.
F. Display routing table information
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 26
In Mac OS X v10.3, changes to network configuration ____________.
A. Require a restart
B. Are user-specific
C. Require administrator authorization
D. Are made in the Internet pane of System Preferences.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What can you use to determine whether there is an active network connection between two computers?
A. Lookup
B. Netstat
C. Whois
D. Ping

Correct Answer: D

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400-101 Exam | 400-101 PDF with Questions Answers

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A TCP/IP host is able to transmit small amounts of data (typically less than 1500 bytes), but attempts to transmit larger amounts of data hang and then time out. What is the cause of this problem?

A. A link is flapping between two intermediate devices.
B. The processor of an intermediate router is averaging 90 percent utilization.
C. A port on the switch that is connected to the TCP/IP host is duplicating traffic and sending it to a port that has a sniffer attached.
D. There is a PMTUD failure in the network path.

Answer: D

Which two statements are true about VPLS? (Choose two.)

A. It can work over any transport that can forward IP packets.
B. It provides integrated mechanisms to maintain First Hop Resiliency Protocols such as HSRP, VRRP, or GLBP.
C. It includes automatic detection of multihoming.
D. It relies on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information.
E. It can carry a single VLAN per VPLS instance.

Answer: DE

Explanation: 648-232 vce

VPLS relies on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information. Therefore, flooding cannot be prevented. VPLS can carry a single VLAN per VPLS instance. To multiplex multiple VLANs on a single instance, VPLS uses IEEE QinQ.

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QUESTION 1
Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What is the maximum capacity of participants for a Cisco WebEx Meeting Center and Training Center meeting?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Your primary site becomes unavailable. Which one of these features enables you to automatically and transparently move all collaboration activity to the backup site, ensuring a seamless user experience?
A. medianet
B. GSB
C. WebEx One-Click
D. GDM

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
With regard to conference node redundancy, if a region requires 2400 G.711 ports, then how many nodes should it include?
A. Two nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
B. Three nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
C. One node with a capacity of 2400 G.711 ports
D. One node with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas and take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 8
Which new WebEx feature allows for the main video to switch automatically to the present speaker, using voice activation?
A. Cisco TelePresence
B. Cisco ActivePresence
C. multipoint video
D. WebEx One-Click

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
One of the challenges of online training is measuring class effectiveness. Which two tools does Cisco WebEx Training Center use to measure this? (Choose two.)
A. visual attention indicator
B. polling
C. self-check quizzes
D. application sharing

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 13
What is the number one customer complaint surveyed by technical support organizations?
A. cost of service
B. time that it takes to resolve issue
C. lack of resolution
D. time that it takes to reach a service representative

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 15
What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which statement is true about active speaker?
A. Active speaker switching is automatic with third-party audio only.
B. Active speaker does not work for a site without integrated audio.
C. Active speaker switching is automatic with Cisco WebEx audio, third-party audio, and Cisco Unified

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300-075 Exam

QUESTION 1
Which parameter should be set to prevent H.323 endpoints from registering to Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server automatically?
A. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Protocols, H.323, and set Auto Discover to off.
B. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Protocols, H.323, and set Auto Registration to off.
C. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Registration, Allow List, and set Auto Registration to off.
D. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Registration, Configuration, and set Auto Registration to off.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?
A. Endpoints can make calls to unknown IP addresses without the VCS querying any neighbors.
B. If the VCS receives a call to an unknown IP address, it queries its neighbors for the remote address and if permitted, it routes the call through the neighbor.
C. Endpoints that are registered directly to the VCS can call only an IP address of a system that is also registered directly to that VCS.
D. Dialing by IP address is not supported on VCS.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
A local gateway is registered to Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server with a prefix of 7. The administrator wants to stop calls from outside the organization being routed through it. Which CPL configuration accomplishes this goal?
A.
B.
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which type of search message appears in the Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server search history page when it receives a H.323 call from a RAS-enabled endpoint that originates from an external zone?
A. ARQ
B. SETUP
C. LRQ
D. INVITE
E. OPTIONS

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Widgets.com’s Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server allows SIP and H.323 registrations. Which local zone search rule configuration allows SIP registered endpoints to connect to H.323 endpoints that register with an H.323 E.164 number only?

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: D

 

300-075 Exam

QUESTION 6
You want to avoid unnecessary interworking in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server, such as where a call between two H.323 endpoints is made over SIP, or vice versa. Which setting is recommended?
A. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Reject
B. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. On
C. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Registered only
D. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Off
E. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Variable

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 8
Which two statements about configuring mobile and remote access on Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The traversal server zone on Expressway-C must have a TLS verify subject name configured.
B. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone Media encryption mode must be set to Force encrypted.
C. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone Media encryption mode must be set to Auto.
D. The traversal client zone on Expressway-C Media encryption mode must be set to Auto.
E. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone must be set to SIP TLS with TLS verify mode set to On.

Correct Answer: BE

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Download Cisco ICND1 100-105 PDF Official Cert Guide

 

100-105 PDF

How much change should I expect for the ICND1?

For the first exam, Cisco has rearranged the material and condensed the objectives from seven to five. Here’s a comparison of the old and new objectives:

OLD: 100-101 ICND1 v2.0
1.0 Operation of IP Data Networks
2.0 LAN Switching Technologies
3.0 IP Addressing
4.0 IP Routing Technologies
5.0 IP Services
6.0 Network Device Security
7.0 Troubleshooting

NEW: 100-105 ICND1 v3.0
1.0 Network Fundamentals
2.0 LAN Switching Technologies
3.0 Routing Technologies
4.0 Infrastructure Services
5.0 Infrastructure Management

While at first glance it might appear that the CCENT removed troubleshooting questions entirely, the new exam simply integrates troubleshooting into each objective. For example, Objective 2.0: LAN Switching Technologies will have you troubleshoot interface and cable issues (collisions, errors, duplex, speed), while in Objective 1.0: Network Fundamentals, you’ll have to troubleshoot IPv4 and IPv6, as well as “apply troubleshooting methodologies to resolve problems:”

1.7.a Perform fault isolation and document
1.7.b Resolve or escalate
1.7.c Verify and monitor resolution
The changes in the objectives typically just mean reorganization of the old material, but there have been a few additions and deletions of topics for this exam, which I’ll explain.

Key Topics Removed from ICND1 or Moved to ICND2 Exam:

OSPF (single area) and other OSPF topics were moved into ICND2. Instead, RIP is used to introduce CCENT candidates to IP routing protocols.

Dual Stack was removed from ICND1, since there are many different IPv4 to IPv6 transition technologies being used.

Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) has been removed.

 

100-105 PDF

 

Key Topics Added:

High level knowledge of the impact and interactions of infrastructure components in an Enterprise network, specifically:
Firewalls
Access Points
Wireless Controllers
Awareness of the Collapsed Core architecture compared to traditional three-tier architectures. This option collapses the Distribution and Core into a single tier, with the Access as the second tier.
Configuring and verifying IPv6 Stateless Address Auto Configuration (SLAAC).
Coverage of anycast IPv6 addressing.
Knowledge of Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP). An L2 discovery protocol is used in addition to Cisco Discovery Protocol.
Knowledge of RIPv2 for IPv4 as the primary focus for understanding of how routing protocols work.
DNS and DHCP related connectivity issues.
Syslog message logging for device monitoring.
Skills and knowledge of device management related to backup and restoring device configurations, IOS feature licensing, and configuring time zones.

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QUESTION NO: 71
When a workflow system is designed, what technique can be used to speed up approval cycles for documents when multiple people are involved?
A. Parallel routing
B. Multiple servers
C. Sequential routing
D. Automatic recognition
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 72
A component of designing the input environment would include:
A. document quality.
B. printing volume.
C. storage media.
D. print media.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 73
An international corporation with offices in ten Third World countries is going paperless. Which of the following technologies will likely be utilized?
A. Wireless / Satellite
B. T-1 / Frame relay
C. Land-based telephone lines
D. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 74
A software modification is being implemented on an existing document management system. Which information is the LEAST important to communicate to the solution owner?
A. List of software fixes and patches.
B. Scheduled maintenance window.
C. Full description of system changes.
D. Roll back strategy if software modification fails.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 75
Which method of indexing would be the MOST labor intensive?
A. Optical Mark Recognition (OMR)
B. Bar Coding
C. Zonal OCR
D. Heads-down indexing
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 76
A customer has a mixed OS environment and they wish to consolidate all their documents onto a server running one OS. Which of the following solutions would be the most cost effective, and allow all the users to access the documents on the server?
A. Install dual boot clients
B. A browser-based client
C. Provide dialup access to the server from all clients
D. Migrate to the same OS that runs on the server
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 77
When a consultant recommends a scanner to a client, what percentage of the scanned pages need to be
two-sided in order to cost justify a duplex scanner?
A. 10-20%
B. 30-40%
C. 50-60%
D. 70-80%
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 78
When selecting a scanner, all of the following criteria need to be considered EXCEPT:
A. monthly duty cycle.
B. paper size.
C. simplex or duplex.
D. OCR throughput.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 79
Which of the following would be the BEST way to obtain customer commitment for a document imaging project?
A. Executive briefing with only senior management
B. Onsite demonstration with customers documents
C. A series of white papers on the solution
D. Onsite demonstration with the consultants prepared documents
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 80
Certkiller had designed a new system for processing and then viewing the student records from the Web.
Each student has one image(8?” x 11″) that was scanned at 300 dpi and when compressed takes up
approximate 52KB of space. Which of the following methods has been used to store the image?
A. DjVu
B. LDF LuraDoc
C. ITU (CCITT) Group IV
D. ITU (CCITT) Group III
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 81
In order to allow for the encrypted access of documents over the web, the web server should support:
A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).
B. FTP
C. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP).
D. XML.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 82
The customer requires that the database be accessible by third party reporting tools. Which option BEST allows the database to comply with this requirement?
A. Open Database Connectivity (ODBC) compliant
B. Full text search capabilities
C. Availability of user views
D. FTP accessible
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 83
What is one advantage of using a “group” to secure access to a type document or folder rather than assigning permissions to individual system users?
A. Group security provides stronger security than individual security on documents.
B. It is easier to see who has access to a document by group name than by user’s names.
C. Imaging systems only provide security at group levels and it is impossible to secure documents by user.
D. As conditions change it is easier to remove or add users to a group than to track individual permissions.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 84
The Return on Investment (ROI) of the proposed Document Management System (DMS) is BEST reviewed with the:
A. Chief Information Officer (CIO).
B. help desk.
C. IT department.
D. network administrator.
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 85
A client bills customers with invoices generated on a laser printer. The invoice includes a payment stub that is mailed back to the client with payment. Currently, the client scans the payment stub and check by utilizing heads-up indexing to apply the index information. Which of the following methods would be the easiest and LEAST expensive to index the scanned images?
A. Continue with current method of heads-up indexing of scanned payments
B. Create Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) or bar coded coversheets that are placed at the beginning of each payment when scanned with index information
C. Continue printing invoices on a laser printer but include a bar code with index information on the submission stub
D. Purchase indexing software and hardware to automate this process
Answer: C
Topic 2, B
B
QUESTION NO: 86
An organization is migrating from an older document imaging system to a new system. What is the most important risk to consider first?
A. Barcode compatibility.
B. Lack of documentation.
C. Reliable and accurate retrieval.
D. Database capacity and transfer rate.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 87
An organization currently microfilms all source documents. While filming, the source document is unavailable for a minimum of three days. A document imaging system has been proposed where documents will now be scanned. What is the best advantage of the proposed system?
A. Scanned images are higher quality.

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QUESTION 41
Which portion of the Model-View-Controller paradigm is represented in Force.com as a standard or custom object?
A. Model
B. Controller
C. View

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 42
In a master-detail relationship, what happens to the child records if the parent record is deleted?
A. Parent record deletion fails.
B. Child records are not deleted.
C. A subset of the child records is deleted.
D. Child records are deleted.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which action is available to a developer when two objects are connected by a lookup relationship? Choose 2 answers
A. create a roll-up summary field on the parent object to count child records
B. create a custom report type that allows customization of fields displayed from both parent and child objects
C. create a cross-object formula field on the child object to reference fields on the parent object
D. create a cross-object formula field on the parent object to reference fields on the child object

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 44
Universal Containers tracks Positions as a custom object in a recruiting application. All positions with a
priority of critical should NOT be open for more than two weeks. If a position remains open for more than
14 days, the priority should be re-examined.
How would a developer automate this process?

A. Create a workflow action to clone the position, assigned to the owner of the position record, that is due 14 days after record creation
B. Create a validation rule that compares today’s date and the record’s creation date to determine if the difference is greater than 14 days
C. Recreate a time-dependent workflow action that sends an email to the recruiter if the position is still open 14 days after record creation
D. Create a time-dependent workflow action that updates the position status to Closed 14 days after record creation

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
Given a three tier model (UI layer, business logic layer, data layer), which feature of the Force.com platform is associated with the data layer? Choose 3 answers
A. Custom applications
B. Custom relationships
C. Custom fields
D. Custom objects
E. Custom tabs

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 46
What is a Junction object?
A. A standard object with a master-detail relationship
B. A custom object with two master-detail relationships
C. A standard object with two master-detail relationships
D. A custom object with a master-detail relationship

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 47
A developer would like to enable end users to filter the data displayed on the related list of an object detail page. How could a developer accomplish this?
A. Enable Advanced Search on the object’s related list
B. Customize the search filter fields layout for that object
C. Create a Visualforce page to replace the object detail view
D. Configure the object’s related list to add a filter

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48
Hiring managers at Universal Containers would like a visual mechanism for determining review score outliers. Review scores are captured as a custom field on a custom Review object and can range from l to
10. Any review score that is > 8 should be highlighted in green.
Any review score that is < 4 should be highlighted In red.
How would a developer accomplish this?

A. Use custom summary formulas

B. Use matrix reports

C. Use charts

D. Use conditional highlighting
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
Users X and Y need to see the same candidate record. For security reasons, user Y should NOT be able to view and report on the Email Address field on the record.
How would a developer meet this requirement?
A. Use a custom Visualforce page to make the email address visible to user X but not user Y
B. Use a sharing rule to make the email address only visible to user X
C. use page layouts to make the email address visible to user X but not user Y
D. Use field-level security to make the email address visible to user X but not user Y

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which type of tab can a developer create? Choose 3 answers.
A. Apex tabs
B. web tabs
C. standard object tabs
D. Visualforce tabs
E. custom object tabs

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 51
Which property of a field can be edited within the page layout editor? Choose 2 answers
A. Read-only
B. Controller
C. Always Displayed
D. Field Dependency
E. Required

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 52
A developer has added a custom object tab to an application. Which additional feature will become available by default for the object in the application? Choose 3 answers
A. Create New sidebar component
B. Custom reporting
C. Recent items
D. Quick create
E. Search

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 53
The list view picklist for an object, including its associated list of records for the currently selected view. In standard Salesforce applications this component is displayed on the main tab for a particular object. This component has additional attributes that can be specified, such as the height and rows per page, as compared to <apex:listView>. Note: When an <apex:enhancedList> is rerendered through another component’s rerender attribute, the <apex:enhancedList> must be inside of an <apex:outputPanel> component that has its layout attribute set to “block”. The <apex:enhancedList> component is not allowed on pages that have the attribute showHeader set to false. You can only have five <apex:enhancedList> components on a single page. Ext JS versions less than 3 should not be included on pages that use this component.
A. apex:attribute
B. apex:enhancedList
C. apex:actionFunction
D. apex:inputCheckbox

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
Defines a chart legend. This component offers additional configuration options beyond the defaults used by the legend attribute of the <apex:chart> component. Note: This component must be enclosed within an <apex:chart> component.
A. apex:dataTable
B. apex:legend
C. apex:pageBlockSectionItem
D. apex:inputSecret

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
An HTML table that is defined by iterating over a set of data, displaying information about one item of data per row. The body of the <apex:dataTable> contains one or more column components that specify what information should be displayed for each item of data. The data set can include up to 1,000 items.
A. apex:listViews
B. apex:dataTable
C. apex:define
D. apex:inputHidden

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
What three classes along with the Messaging.InboundEmailHandler are used to handle inbound email messages in Salesforce? (No Answer)
A. Apex code, Visualforce pages, and controllers
B. Messaging.InboundEmail, Messaging.InboundEmailResult, Messaging.InboundEnvelope
C. Messaging.InboundEmailHandler
D. Make calls to methods using both valid and invalid inputs.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
How can the default profile under which Webservices execute be changed? (No Answer)
A. with sharing keyword
B. Webservice
C. SOQL statements
D. constructor
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
What are some RESTful service callout HTTP verbs? (No Answer)
A. GET, POST, PUT, DELETE
B. System, debug
C. List of List Objects
D. Setup menu

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
What is the maximum size of a SOAP request or response regulated by? (No Answer)
A. @ReadOnly
B. RETURNING
C. Trigger.old
D. a governor limit

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
What trigger method is used to correlate IDI-to-sObject maps? (No Answer)
A. Trigger.newMap, Trigger.oldMap
B. Internal and external
C. Trigger.new
D. Queues, time triggers

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Which form of dml operation allows execution to occur with subsequent records even if an error occurs with a single record? (No Answer)
A. Database class method
B. Public class MyNewClass
C. Standalone, database class methods
D. Apex classes

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Which type of for loops are defined with the following syntax?
FOR(initstmt; exit_condition; increment stmt){ codeblock }

Traditional for loops
List iteration for loops

Set iteration for loops

SOQLforloops(No
Answer)

A.
Static and final

B.
A governor limit

C.
Traditional for loops

D.
SOQL for loops
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
What language is Apex similar to? (No Answer)
A. Catch
B. 1
C. TRUE
D. Java

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 64
What does Apex provide to support programmatic control of the workflow? (No Answer)
A. Map, List, Set
B. Apex classes
C. Through class itself
D. Apex process classes

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 65
What are all the datatypes that Salesforce supports? (No Answer)
A. Primitive, sObject, Collections, Null
B. SOAP Web Service Callouts
C. List of List Objects
D. GET, POST, PUT, DELETE

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
How should one prevent soql injection when using dynamic soql? (No Answer)
A. XMLStreanWriter, XMLStreamReader
B. Messaging.InboundEmailHandler
C. with sharing keyword
D. Utilize the String.escapeSingleQuotes(string) method

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
How does the Email service process inbound emails? (No Answer)
A. Apex classes
B. Exceptions
C. FALSE
D. catch

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
What two ways are available to customize and create applications in salesforce? (No Answer)
A. declaratively, programmatically
B. Encapsulation principles
C. static and final
D. plural name plus__r

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
What annotation can be used with Web Services to allow unrestricted queries when no DML operations are necessary? (No Answer)
A. @ReadOnly
B. For loops
C. RETURNING
D. TRUE

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70
What email addresses can emails be sent to out of Salesforce? (No Answer)
A. Schema Explorer
B. Plural name plus__r
C. Static and final
D. Internal and external

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 71
What is a class? (No Answer)
A. Apex, Visualforce, and APIs
B. Database class method
C. A template from which objects are created
D. Ajax toolkit, client program

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
Which of the following statements are true about components of dynamic Apex? Schema describe is a way to program matically learn about the metadata of your data model within Apex.

Dynamic SOQL refers to the creation of a SOQL string before runtime within an Apex script,

In dynamic SQQL, you use Sring.escapeSinqIeQuoLes (sLrng)to prevent SQQL injection.

You can use dynamic SOSL to create a tree structure of all the objects and fields in your schema browser.

A.
In, like, and, or, not, group by, order by, all rows, limit

B.
Schema describe is a way to program magically learn about the metadata of your data model within Apex.

C.
Web service methods must be static, webservice methods cannot be overloaded

D.
Create complex functionality declarative features cannot provide.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 73
What can the Force.com IDE be used to create? (No Answer)
A. Apex code, Visualforce pages, and controllers
B. Standalone, database class methods
C. Record level access
D. Apex, Visualforce, and APIs

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
What are the types of exception classes developers can choose between in Apex? (No Answer)
A. System-defined, user-defined
B. Schema Explorer
C. Webservice
D. static and final

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which trigger context variable cannot be deleted? (No Answer)
A. RETURNING
B. on-demand
C. Exceptions
D. Trigger.new

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
What is the this keyword used to represent? (No Answer)
A. A template from which objects are created
B. FALSE, they must be static
C. Methods and attributes of the current instance of a class
D. Encapsulation principles

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
What code is the webservice keyword not allowed to be used? (No Answer)
A. Implicit invocation
B. code contained in a trigger
C. Class, trigger
D. Queues, time triggers

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
What is the total number of messages that all email services put together can process in a day? (No Answer)
A. Failure response settings
B. Number of user licenses multiplied by 1000
C. Through class itself
D. List of List Objects

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Which keywords should u specify to define a constant?
static and exception

static and final

static and private

exception and final(No Answer)

A.
Setup menu

B.
Multi-tenant

C.
static and final

D.
SOQL statements

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
Which syntax should you use to create a new public class named MyNewClass?
Public class MyNewClass {}

Class public MyNewClass {}

Class MyNewClass {} public

MyNewClass public {} class(No Answer)

A.
Public class MyNewClass

B.
Database class method

C.
SOQL statements

D.
Static and final

Correct Answer: A

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