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All Pass4itsure Exam (EADA105, DEVOPSF, PDPF, GRE-SECTION-1, CRISC, MCE) Dumps List

EADA105 Exam Pdf Dumps [2020,free]https://drive.google.com/file/d/1cTzeRpjL3K3qQZBDIPwLzkT-UnYdteyh/view?usp=sharing
DEVOPSF Exam Pdf Dumps [2020,free]https://drive.google.com/file/d/1yfbq4v_H4lBstTybrUxCJn29pB9ZOqiZ/view?usp=sharing
PDPF Exam Pdf Dumps [2020,free]https://drive.google.com/file/d/11C6OAXM7kKA-OojUWFtXkVYx7ARx7BVk/view?usp=sharing
GRE-SECTION-1 Exam Pdf Dumps [2020,free]https://drive.google.com/file/d/1ApNPpI3BAg2FjZP5dYxYIKlgTXqd777_/view?usp=sharing
CRISC Exam Pdf Dumps [2020,free]https://drive.google.com/file/d/1ZcAhTsm2SjJZaxkpxF6ykaF6UTZmfYEX/view?usp=sharing
MCE Exam Pdf Dumps [2020,free]https://drive.google.com/file/d/1pWvPxmaVMM53N-DRZkFJumXIgsxWfjNo/view?usp=sharing

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Esri Certification EADA105 Practice Test 1-5

Pass4itsure EADA105 Exam Questions Answershttps://www.pass4itsure.com/eada105.html

Vendor: Esri
Certifications: Esri Others Certification
Exam Code: EADA105
Exam Name: ArcGIS Desktop Associate 10.5
Updated: Jul 11, 2020
Q&As: 80

QUESTION 1
An ArcGIS analyst is working with a mosaic dataset created from Landsat imagery. The images are displayed in the
mosaic dataset using a 7,4,3 band combination (Short-wave Infrared 2, Red, Green). The analyst needs to use the
mosaic dataset to determine relative biomass in the area of interest.
Which raster function should be used?
A. NDVI
B. Identify
C. Spectral Conversion
D. Zonal Remap
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://highcarbonstock.org/wp-content/uploads/2015/04/HCS-Approach-Toolkit-Ch3-GIS-analysis.pdf


QUESTION 2
An ArcGIS user must share a map as a service to ArcGIS Online. The service must draw as fast as possible on a
mobile device to provide fast display in the field. Which option should the user select in the capabilities of the service?
A. KML
B. Feature access
C. Tiled mapping
D. Mobile access
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.esri.com/thread/55230


QUESTION 3
A GIS technician has a polygon layer of land use types and a separate table that contains the definition of each land use
type. Several polygons have the same land use type. How should the technician apply the land use type descriptions in
the table to the polygon layer?
A. Relationship Class
B. Relate
C. Join
D. Spatial Join
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://desktop.arcgis.com/en/arcmap/10.3/manage-data/tables/about-joining-and-relating-tables.htm

QUESTION 4
An ArcGIS user has two feature classes. One is spatially inaccurate but contains accurate tabular data. The other is
spatially accurate but contains inaccurate tabular data. The ArcGIS user needs a single feature class that incorporates
the most accurate spatial and attribute data from both sources.
Which process should the ArcGIS user employ to accomplish this?
A. Join Fields
B. Transfer Attributes
C. Copy Features
D. Load Data
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
A GIS analyst has a feature class containing property boundaries and a table containing the names of the owners of that
property. Many properties have more than one owner. The analyst must publish this data to ArcGIS Online and show
which owners are associated with which property in a pop-up window.
What should the analyst set up before publishing?
A. Join
B. Relate
C. Relationship class
D. Spatial Join
Correct Answer: D

EXIN DevOps Foundation DEVOPSF Practice Test 1-5

Pass4itsure EXIN DevOps Foundation DEVOPSF Exam Questions Answershttps://www.pass4itsure.com/devopsf.html

Vendor: EXIN
Certifications: DevOps Foundation
Exam Code: DEVOPSF
Exam Name: EXIN DevOps Foundation
Updated: Jul 10, 2020
Q&As: 40

QUESTION 1
Even more than Agile or Scrum, DevOps encourages continuous delivery of new functionality and continuous feedback
from the customer. What does this achieve?
A. It increases the team\\’s responsibility
B. It improves customer relations
C. It yields a greater return on IT
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A team stores not only source code, but many other things related to the IT system, such as tests, scripts, artifacts,
libraries and many other things. Which DevOps principle has this team implemented?
A. Continuous delivery
B. Deployment pipeline
C. Version control
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
There are many reasons for an organization to become interested in DevOps. When should an organization become
interested in DevOps?
A. When automated testing is achieved and all functional requirements are tested automatically
B. When continuous delivery is achieved and every change automatically results in a new version of the product
C. When continuous deployment is achieved and every change is immediately released to the customer
D. When continuous integration is achieved and every update to the code is saved immediately to Production
E. When the core business of the organization highly depends on information technology
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Your team uses continuous delivery.
What are two reasons to keep the batch size small? (Choose two.)
A. So that each team member can get their own batch
B. So that root causes of problems can be identified and resolved quickly
C. So that the product owner can report back to the customer
D. So that the product owner has a good idea of what is delivered when
E. So that there is room for Kaizen blitzes in between work
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://medium.com/faun/small-is-beautiful-the-importance-of-batch-size-ea968ed8d477


QUESTION 5
What should be taken into account most when prioritizing tasks according to DevOps practices?
A. How long the task has waited
B. How much the team likes the task
C. How much value the task adds
D. How much work the task takes
Correct Answer: C

EXIN Privacy & Data Protection PDPF Practice Test 1-5

Pass4itsure EXIN PDPF Exam Questions Answershttps://www.pass4itsure.com/pdpf.html

Vendor: EXIN
Certifications: Privacy & Data Protection
Exam Code: PDPF
Exam Name: Privacy and Data Protection Foundation
Updated: Jul 04, 2020
Q&As: 149

QUESTION 1
A processor is instructed to report on customers who bought a product both last month and at least once in the three
months before that. Unfortunately, the processor makes a mistake and uses personal data collected by another
controller for
a different purpose.
The mistake is found before the report is created, and nobody has access to personal date he or she should not have
had access to.
How should the processor act on this situation and what should the controller do, if anything?
A. The processor must notify the controller and the controller must notify the Data Protection Authority of a data breach.
B. The processor must notify the controller of a data breach. The controller must assess the possible risk to the data
subjects.
C. The processor must notify the Data Protection Authority of a data breach. The controller must execute a PIA to
assess the risk to data subjects.
D. The processor must restart processing using the right data. There is no need for the controller to act.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Personal data can be transferred outside of the EEA. According to the GDPR, which transfers outside the EEA are
always lawful?
A. Transfers based on the laws of the non-EEA country concerns
B. Transfers falling under World Trade Organization rules
C. Transfers governed by approved binding corporate rules (BCR)
D. Transfers within a global corporation or organization
Correct Answer: C
Transfers based on the laws of the non-EEA country concerned. Incorrect. This would also require an adequacy
decision confirming that those laws are sufficient.
Transfers falling under World Trade Organization rules. Incorrect. WTO only covers free trade of goods and services.
Transfers governed by approved binding corporate rules (BCR). Correct. Binding corporate rules approved by a
supervisory authority involved make the transfer lawful. (Literature: A, Chapter 7; GDPR Article 47)
Transfers within a global corporation or organization. Incorrect. This would also require that they adopt official binding
corporate rules.
Reference: https://edps.europa.eu/data-protection/data-protection/reference-library/international-transfers_en

QUESTION 3
Which of the following conflicts with the principle of limiting the purposes?
A. The data is sold to another company without the consent of the data subject.
B. Adapt the data to the purpose of the treatment.
C. Store the data in a way that allows the identification of the data subjects.
D. Data is used in an obscure manner to the data subject.
Correct Answer: A
The principle of limitation of purposes says that personal data must be collected for specific, explicit and legitimate
purposes and cannot be further processed in a way incompatible with those purposes. When the data is sold to another
company, we can conclude that it was acquired by a controller for a specific purpose and that it subsequently sold it
without the owner\\’s knowledge and consent.


QUESTION 4
In the contract between the controller and processor for the processing of personal data, which of the options below
represents the sole responsibility of the Controller?
A. Erase all personal data after the completion of treatment-related services, deleting existing copies.
B. Treat personal data only through documented instructions, including with regard to data transfers to third countries or
international organizations.
C. Ensure that the persons authorized to process personal data have made a commitment to confidentiality.
D. Apply technical and organizational measures to ensure that only personal data that are necessary for each specific
purpose of processing are processed.
Correct Answer: D
The correct option is exclusively for the Controller, the others are for the Processor in accordance with Articles 25 and
28 of the GDPR.


QUESTION 5
According to the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which category of personal data is considered to be
sensitive data?
A. Labor union association
B. Passport number
C. Credit card details
D. Social security number
Correct Answer: A
Article 9: Processing of special categories of personal data:
1. Processing of personal data revealing racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical beliefs, or
trade union membership, and the processing of genetic data, biometric data for the purpose of uniquely identifying a
natural person, data concerning health or data concerning a natural person\\’s sex life or sexual orientation shall be
prohibited.

GRE Certifications GRE-SECTION-1 Practice Test 1-5

Pass4itsure GRE Certifications GRE-SECTION-1 Exam Questions Answershttps://www.pass4itsure.com/gre-section-1.html

Vendor: GRE
Certifications: GRE Certifications
Exam Code: GRE-SECTION-1
Exam Name: GRE Section 1 : Verbal
Updated: Jul 11, 2020
Q&As: 365

QUESTION 1
TOPAZ : YELLOW
A. diamond : carat
B. jeweler : clarity
C. sapphire : red
D. amethyst : purple
E. amber : blue
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
SCIENTIAL :
A. ignorant
B. intuitive
C. stupid
D. regressive
E. gullible
Correct Answer: A
SCIENTIAL means “of or having knowledge”, just the opposite of ignorant.

QUESTION 3
Johann Sebastian Bach was a towering figure in western classical music; his influence and persona can even be
considered __________ since many of his contemporaries and successors had to live in his shadow, no less than his
own son Carl Philipp Emanuel Bach who was also a gifted composer in his own right. (Choose two.)
A. insufferable
B. overwhelming
C. uncanny
D. insurmountable
E. germane
F. reticent
Correct Answer: BD
Let us try to understand the meaning of the sentence from the partial information.
In the sentence, the phrases “was a towering figure” and “contemporaries and successors… had to live in his shadow”
make it obvious that Johann exercised a lot of “influence” which was unmatched during his age. Hence, his “influence”
can
be said to be “overpowering” or “unparalleled”. These two can be apt fill-ins.
Now, let us look at the meaning of the adjectives in the options.
A. insufferable ?too extreme to bear; intolerable
B. overwhelming ?huge; formidable; massive
C. uncanny ?mysterious; supernatural
D. insurmountable ?too great to be overcome; invisible
E. germane ?relevant; connected
F. reticent ?reserved; modest
“overwhelming” and “insurmountable” both fit in the blank. “Insufferable” is incorrect because it is an extremely negative
word in the context. “Uncanny” is incorrect because contextually it is not relevant. “Germane” is incorrect because it is
too shallow for the context. “Reticent” is incorrect because it rather goes against the context.

QUESTION 4
Victorian poetess Christina Rossetti\\’s potent sensual imagery compelled Edmond Gosse, perhaps the most influential
literary critic in late Victorian England, to observe that she “does not shrink from strong delineation of the pleasures of
life even when denouncing them”. In the face of Rossetti\\’s virtual canonization by critics at the end of the nineteenth
century, however, Virginia Woolf ignores her apparent conservatism, instead seeing in her curiosity value and a model
of artistic purity and integrity for women writers. In 1930, the centenary of Rossetti\\’s birth, Woolf identified her as “one
of Shakespeare\\’s more recent sisters” whose life had been reclusively Victorian but whose achievement as an artist
was enduring. Woolf remembers Rossetti for her four volumes of explosively original poems loaded with vivid images
and dense emotional energy. “A Birthday”, for instance, is no typical Victorian poem and is certainly unlike predictable
works of the era\\’s best known women poets. Rossetti\\’s most famous poem, “Goblin Market”, bridges the space
between simplistic fairy tale and complex adult allegory at once Christian, psychological, and profeminist. Like many of
Rossetti\\’s works, it is extraordinarily original and unorthodox in form. Its subject matter is radical and therefore risky for
a Victorian poetess because it implies castigation of an economic (and even marital) marketplace dominated by men,
whose motives are, at best, suspect. Its Christian allusions are obvious but grounded in opulent images whose lushness
borders on the erotic. From Rossetti\\’s work emerge not only emotional force, artistic polish, frequently ironic
playfulness, and intellectual vigor but also an intriguing, enigmatic quality. “Winter: My Secret”, for example, combines
these traits along with a very high (and un-Victorian) level of poetic self-consciousness. “How does one reconcile the
aesthetic sensuality of Rossetti\\’s poetry with her repressed, ascetic lifestyle?” Woolf wondered. That Rossetti did
indeed withhold a “secret” both from those intimate with her and from posterity is Lona Packer\\’s thesis in her 1963
biography of Rossetti. Packer\\’s claim that Rossetti\\’s was a secret of the heart has since been disproved through the
discovery of hundreds of letters by Rossetti, which reinforce the conventional image of her as pious, scrupulously
abstinent, and semi-reclusive. Yet the passions expressed in her love poems do expose the “secret” at the heart of both
Rossetti\\’s life and art: a willingness to forego worldly pleasures in favor of an aestheticized Christian version of
transcendent fulfillment in heaven. Her sonnet “The World”, therefore, becomes pivotal in understanding Rossetti\\’s
literary project as a whole her rhymes for children, fairy tale narratives, love poems, and devotional commentaries. The
world, for Rossetti, is a fallen place. Her work is pervasively designed to force upon readers this inescapable Christian
truth. The beauty of her poetry must be seen therefore as an artistic strategy, a means toward a moral end.
The passage mentions all of the following as qualities that emerge from Rossetti\\’s work EXCEPT for ___________.
A. lush imagery
B. ironic playfulness
C. stark realism
D. unorthodox form
E. intellectual vigor
Correct Answer: C
In describing Rossetti\\’s work, the author never uses the words “stark” or “realism”, nor does the author describe her
work in any way that might be expressed by either of these terms. Choices (A), (B), and (E) are all mentioned explicitly
in the second paragraph as qualities that emerge from Rossetti\\’s work. As for choice (D), the author refers to the form
of Rossetti\\’s works in reference specifically to “Goblin Market”, claiming that in its unorthodox form “Goblin Market” is
like many of Rossetti\\’s works. In this way, the author identifies “unorthodox form” as one quality that emerges from
Rossetti\\’s work.

QUESTION 5
TREMBLE : FEAR
A. scream : envy
B. smile : rage
C. demand : anger
D. follow : adoration
E. weep : grief
Correct Answer: E
This is a “sign or manifestation of” analogy. To TREMBLE is to exhibit a certain physiological symptom, or
manifestation, of FEAR; similarly, to weep is to exhibit a physiological manifestation of grief. Choice (D) is the second
best choice: an adoring person might follow the object of his or her adoration. But this manifestation is not physiological,
nor is it as inexorable as trembling or weeping (as manifestations of fear and grief, respectively).

Isaca CRISC Certification CRISC Practice Test 1-5

Pass4itsure Isaca CRISC Exam Questions Answershttps://www.pass4itsure.com/CRISC.html

Vendor: Isaca
Certifications: CRISC Certification
Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Updated: Jul 05, 2020
Q&As: 854

QUESTION 1
A review of an organization\\’s controls has determined its data loss prevention (DLP) system is currently failing to
detect outgoing emails containing credit card data.
Which of the following would be MOST impacted?
A. Risk appetite
B. Residual risk
C. Key risk indicators (KRIs)
D. Inherent risk
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be an IT business owner\\’s BEST course of action following an unexpected increase in
emergency changes?
A. Conducting a root-cause analysis
B. Validating the adequacy of current processes
C. Evaluating the impact to control objectives
D. Reconfiguring the IT infrastructure
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
You are the risk official in Techmart Inc. You are asked to perform risk assessment on the impact of losing a server. For
this assessment you need to calculate monetary value of the server. On which of the following bases do you calculate
monetary value?
A. Cost to obtain replacement
B. Original cost to acquire
C. Annual loss expectancy
D. Cost of software stored
Correct Answer: A
The monetary value of the server should be based on the cost of its replacement. However, the financial impact to the
enterprise may be much broader, based on the function that the server performs for the business and the value it brings
to the enterprise.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: Cost of software is not been counted because it can be restored from the back-up media. On the other hand\\’
Ale for all risk related to the server does not represent the server\\’s value. Lastly, the original cost may be significantly
different from the current cost and, therefore, not relevant to this.

QUESTION 4
You work as a Project Manager for Company Inc. You have to conduct the risk management activities for a project.
Which of the following inputs will you use in the plan risk management process? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. (Choose three.)
A. Quality management plan
B. Schedule management plan
C. Cost management plan
D. Project scope statement
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation:
The inputs to the plan risk management process are as follows:
Project scope statement: It provides a clear sense of the range of possibilities associated with the project and
establishes the framework for how significant the risk management effort may become.
Cost management plan: It describes how risk budgets, contingencies, and management reserves will be reported and
accessed.
Schedule management plan: It describes how the schedule contingencies will be reported and assessed.
Communication management plan: It describes the interactions, which occurs on the project and determines who will be
available to share information on various risks and responses at different times.
Enterprise environmental factors: It include, but are not limited to, risk attitudes and tolerances that describe the degree
of risk that an organization withstand.
Organizational process assets: It includes, but are not limited to, risk categories, risk statement formats, standard
templates, roles and responsibilities, authority levels for decision-making, lessons learned, and stakeholder registers.
Incorrect Answers:
A: It is not an input for Plan risk management process.

QUESTION 5
When reporting risk assessment results to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to include to enable risk-based decision making?
A. A list of assets exposed to the highest risk
B. Potential losses compared to treatment cost
C. Recent audit and self-assessment results
D. Risk action plans and associated owners
Correct Answer: B

Marketo Certified Expert MCE Practice Test 1-5

Pass4itsure Marketo MCE Exam Questions Answershttps://www.pass4itsure.com/mce.html

Vendor: Marketo
Certifications: Marketo Certified Expert
Exam Code: MCE
Exam Name: Marketo Certified Expert
Updated: Jul 11, 2020
Q&As: 75

QUESTION 1
A marketing manager needs to create a program to use when gating content on the company website.
Which two channel type combinations are appropriate for this activity? (Choose two.)
A. An Engagement program with channel Content
B. An Email program with channel Gated Content
C. A Default program with channel Email
D. A Default program with channel Gated Content
E. A Default program with channel Web Form
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 2
If you want to view a list of companies of the people who have visited your website during a certain time period, which
report should you create?
A. Web Page Activity Report
B. Company Web Activity Report
C. Landing Page Performance Report
D. Company Performance Report
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.marketo.com/display/public/DOCS/Company+Web+Activity+Report

QUESTION 3
A marketing director is asked to email leads to invite them to a company event. Which of following Program Channel
Type should be used to register leads and host the event onsite?
A. Email Blast
B. Webinar Channel
C. Roadshow Channel
D. Tradeshow Channel
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
A colleague reviewed a Marketo program setup and noticed that one of the landing page URLs is not SEO-friendly and
needs to be changed. How can the URL of the landing page be changed?
A. URL Tools > Edit URL Settings
B. Landing Page Editor > Change URL
C. URL Builder > SEO URL
D. Rename URL > SEO link
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.marketo.com/display/public/DOCS/Change+the+Landing+Page+URL

QUESTION 5
A colleague reviewed a Marketo program setup and noticed that one of the landing page URLs is not SEO-friendly and
needs to be changed. How can the URL of the landing page be changed?
A. URL Tools > Edit URL Settings
B. Landing Page Editor > Change URL
C. URL Builder > SEO URL
D. Rename URL > SEO link
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.marketo.com/display/public/DOCS/Change+the+Landing+Page+URL

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