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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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210-260 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Q&As:

What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 7
E. 10
F. 15
210-260 exam Correct Answer: BF
What is the purpose of a honeypot IPS?
A. To create customized policies
B. To detect unknown attacks

C. To normalize streams
D. To collect information about attacks
Correct Answer: D
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: ABC
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A
11.A “Device Fingerprint” is most closely associated with which of the following?
A. RSA Risk-Based Authentication
B. RSA Authentication Agent auto-registration
C. an On-Demand code sent to a mobile device

D. a device on which an RSA SecurID token is installed
210-260 pdf Answer:A
12. The term “Silent Collection” relates to
A. Risk-Based behavioral data.
B. Authentication Agent actions.
C. Administrator activity audit logs.
D. Primary-to-Replica database reconciliation.
13. If an organization wants to use RSA SecurID tokens without a PIN (tokencode only),
A. RSA Authentication Manager will not allow it.
B. their token choice is limited to only software tokens.
C. they should be advised that it is not a best security practice.
D. the user can leave their PIN setting blank when prompted to set a PIN.
210-260 vce Answer: C
14. The Adjudicator service is a process designed to
A. lock the RSA SecurID token if it is suspected stolen.
B. securely store and update the database encryption key.
C. prevent the same passcode from being replayed on different servers.
D. resolve database differences between an Authentication Manager server and Server Node.
Answer: C
15. VMware ESXi is used as part of an RSA Authentication Manager deployment because
A. ESXi provides the required firewall protection.
B. the Web Tier server can only be installed on ESXi.
C. Authentication Manager is distributed as a virtual appliance.
D. VMware provides a faster response time to Authentication Agents.
210-260 exam Answer: C
16. The policy to define a user’s PIN parameters (for example, length and composition) is managed
A. as a System Setting.
B. as part of the Token Policy.
C. as a part of Security Domain Policy.
D. as part of the User Authentication Policy.
Answer: B
17. One advantage of creating and running a report compared to a simple console search is that
A. console searches do not allow data filtering.
B. reports can return more results than a console search.
C. report generation is always faster than a console search.
D. console searches can only display results in real time – not historical data.
210-260 dumps Answer: B
18. For which of the following situations is creating a ‘package’ file necessary before installation or
deployment can begin? (Choose two)
A. RADIUS client installation
B. Replica instance deployment
C. Primary server deployment

D. Authentication Agent installation
E. Authentication Manager Web Tier installation
Answer: BE
19. The RSA Self-Service console most closely relates to
A. Authentication activity between an Agent and server.
B. Provisioning activity between a user and an authentication method.
C. Data connections between Active Directory and authentication credentials.
D. Deployment workflow for authentication servers and Web Tier load balancing.
210-260 pdf Answer: B
20. In a Primary/Replica environment, administrative changes can be made only on a Primary server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
21. Designating an “Alternate IP Address” value in an Agent record in the Authentication Manager
Security Console allows
A. an Authentication Agent to use multiple node secret files.
B. an Authentication Agent to seek the fastest responding server.
C. an Authentication Agent to communicate with multiple servers simultaneously.
D. Authentication Manager to recognize translated or multi-homed IP addresses for Agent
authentication requests.
210-260 vce Answer: D

22.The OSI model is a 7-layer model for understanding the functions of a communication system. What OSI
sublayers are specifically addressed by the IEEE 802.11-2007 standard? (Choose 2)

F. 802.1X
Correct Answer: CD
23.The 802.11 protocol specifies a fundamental channel access method that is required for all stations and is
used in all IBSS and BSS networks.
What is this fundamental channel access method called?
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
24.What factor is NOT taken into account when calculating the Link Budget of a point-to-point outdoor WLAN
bridge link?
A. Operating frequency
B. Transmit antenna gain
C. Transmit power
D. Antenna height
E. Receive sensitivity
F. Distance
Correct Answer: D
25. ABC Company is planning a point-to-multipoint outdoor bridge deployment with standalone (autonomous)
802.11 bridge units. 802.1X/EAP will be used for bridge authentication. What device in the bridge
implementation acts as the 802.1X Authenticator?
A. The RADIUS server
B. All non-root bridges
C. A designated non-root bridge
D. The root bridge
E. The Ethernet switch
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
26.The IEEE 802.11a/n physical layer technologies utilize the 5 GHz frequency band. What is true of the two
lower bands (UNII-1 and UNII-2) in this frequency spectrum? (Choose two)
A. The frequency range of these bands is 5000 MHz – 5200 MHz
B. Each of these two bands contain five 20 MHz channels.
C. Regulatory domains worldwide require DFS and TPC in these bands.
D. These bands have a total combined bandwidth of 200 MHz.

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