PMI

PMI PMP Guide Provider, Provide New PMI PMP Exam Free Download With New Discount

You will get full refund if you don’t get the expected mark. We promise you almost 100% guarantee success. Using FLYDUMPS PMI PMP exam sample questions, your self-confidence and proficiency will be enhanced; your knowledge will be strengthened. The FLYDUMPS PMI PMP exam sample questions will be within your grasp very soon after you taking the PMI PMP test. Don’t hesitate to contact FLYDUMPS if you have any questions about the PMI PMP exam. We will resolve your difficulty timely after receiving them. It’s our duty to offer all customers the best after-sale service on Cloudera Certified Specialist in PMI https://www.pass4itsure.com/pmp.html. FLYDUMPS provides the examinees with the PMI PMP exam sample questions. You can take a quiz to check out the questions and answers quality of FLYDUMPS Certified Specialist in PMI PMP demo before you purchase it.

QUESTION 1
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Decomposition
D. Product analysis

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
An element of the project scope statement is:
A. Acceptance criteria.
B. A stakeholder list.
C. A summary budget,
D. High-level risks.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 35
Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
A. Cost baseline
B. Service level agreement
C. Memorandum of understanding
D. Business case

Correct Answer: D

Flydumps PMI PMP practice test is the best training materials. If you are an IT staff, it will be your indispensable training materials. Do not take your future betting on tomorrow. Flydumps PMI PMP practice test are absolutely trustworthy. We are dedicated to provide the materials to the world of the candidates who want to participate in IT exam. To get the PMI https://www.pass4itsure.com/pmp.html exam certification is the goal of many IT people & Network professionals. The pass rate of Flydumps is incredibly high. We are committed to your success.

PMI PMI-SP Demo Free Download, Useful PMI PMI-SP PDF Sale

With the complete collection of PMI PMI-SP exam questions, FLYDUMPS have assembled to take you through your PMI PMI-SP exam sample questions. FLYDUMPS PMI PMI-SP exam sample questions will guide you through the path of your destination in blink of an eye. FLYDUMPS CCB-400 exam sample questions have released, we guarantee that using PMI https://www.pass4itsure.com/pmi-sp.html exam practice test, real questions, questions and answers, will adequately prepare you for your PMI PMI-SP exam, and set you up to pass your exam the First Time. FLYDUMPS PMI PMI-SP exam sample questions provide you everything you will need to take the exam. FLYDUMPS PMI PMI-SP exam sample questions have comprehensive questions, with verified answers researched by industry experts, included the current newest examination questions.

QUESTION 1
Once the project’s WBS has been created what process may happen next?
A. Estimate activity resources
B. Define activities
C. Estimate activity durations
D. Sequence activities

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

The define activities process is the process that may begin once the project’s WBS has been completed
and approved. It is possible, in some projects, to complete the WBS and the activity list at the same time.
Answer option D is incorrect. Sequencing the activities cannot happen until the activity list has been
created.
Answer option A is incorrect. Estimating activity resources is dependent on the activity list, so this choice is
not valid.
Answer option C is incorrect. Estimate activity durations are dependent on the activity list, so this choice is
not valid.

QUESTION 2
Which of the following scheduling techniques identifies the successor activities and the predecessor activities to assist the project manager in sequencing the project work?
A. Precedence Diagramming Method
B. Schedule network template
C. Dependency determination
D. Activity on the Node

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Precedence Diagramming Method uses both predecessors and successors as nodes in the project network diagram. The PDM approach is the most common network diagram approach used. Answer option C is incorrect. Dependency determination identifies the order of the project work. Answer option B is incorrect. The schedule network template is a tool that uses a previous project network diagram as a base for the current project network diagram. Answer option D is incorrect. Activity on the node places activities on circles within a network diagram. It is an example of the precedence diagramming method.

QUESTION 3
You are the project manager of the NHGQ project for your company. You must create and distribute performance reports every week to your key project stakeholders. What communication technique do you normally use to distribute reports?
A. Push technique
B. Many-to-many
C. One-to-one
D. Pull technique
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
Performance reports are distributed through the push technique. This means that the project manager distributes the reports regularly through a mechanism, such as email. Answer option C is incorrect. One-to-one technique describes a conversation between two people. Answer option B is incorrect. Many-to-many technique describes a conversation between many people. Answer option D is incorrect. A pull technique describes the recipients of the report “pulling” the information, such as from a Website.

QUESTION 4
Your project team is executing the project plan and things are going well. Your team has reached its first milestone and is now in the second phase of the project. The project stakeholders have requested that you find a method to reduce the duration of the project. They will reward you and your project team with a 25 percent bonus of the project costs if you can finish the project thirty days earlier than what was already planned. The stakeholders, however, will not approve any additional labor costs as part of the agreement. Which approach could you use to shorten the duration of the project?
A. Perform resource leveling for the project.
B. Crash the project schedule.
C. Fast track the project.
D. Remove things from the project scope.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Fast tracking is a technique for compressing project schedule. In fast tracking, phases are overlapped that would normally be done in sequence. It is shortening the project schedule without reducing the project scope. It does not add any additional labor but it can introduce project risks. Answer option D is incorrect. Removing things from the project scope can reduce the project duration, but it will not satisfy the requirements the stakeholders have identified. Answer option A is incorrect. Resource leveling can actually increase the project duration. Answer option B is incorrect. Crashing can reduce the project duration but it increases the labor expense, something the stakeholders won’t approve.

QUESTION 5
The Define Activities process is the first process in the project time management knowledge are a. The Define Activities process creates just three outputs as a result of decomposition, rolling wave planning, templates, and expert judgment. Which one of the following is not an output of the Define Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Milestone list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project document updates

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project document updates are not an output of the Define Activities process. Project document updates are the outputs for estimate activity resources. Project document updates include the following: Activity list Activity attributes Resource calendars Answer option A is incorrect. The activity list is an output of the define activities process. Answer option C is incorrect. The activity attributes is an output of the define activities process. Answer option B is incorrect. The milestone list is an output of the define activities process.
QUESTION 6
Examine the figure given below:

If Activity B takes eight days to complete instead of five days as schedule, how long can you now delay Activity H?
A. Three days
B. One day
C. Four days
D. Zero days

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Activity B is not on the critical path and it has a total of four days of float. If Activity B takes a total of eight days, it will consume three days of float. However, the total duration of the path ABEHJ may not exceed 26 days, as this is the total duration for the project. Although Activity H has a total of four days of float available, the consumption of three days of float on this path will reduce the total float for Activity H to just one day. If Activity H is delayed by more than one day, then the project will be late. Answer option D is incorrect. There is one day of float still available for Activity H. Answer options A and C are incorrect. These are not the valid answers, as there is just one day of float available for Activity H.
QUESTION 7
You are the project manager of the GHT Project. Ben, one of your project team members, does not understand the idea of a milestone. Which of the following best describes what a milestone is?
A. A significant point in the project
B. A goal of reaching a significant delivery of project benefits by an identified date
C. An imposed date for the project to reach a given point
D. The completion of a project activity that is crucial to project completion

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A milestone is simply a significant point or event in the project. It does not have to be assigned to a specific date, but is usually assigned to the completion of project phases. A milestone is the end of a stage that marks the completion of a work package or phase, typically marked by a high level event such as completion, endorsement or signing of a deliverable, document or a high level review meeting. In addition to signaling the completion of a key deliverable, a milestone may also signify an important decision or the derivation of a critical piece of information, which outlines or affects the future of a project. In this sense, a milestone not only signifies distance traveled (key stages in a project) but also indicates direction of travel since key decisions made at milestones may alter the route through the project plan. To create a milestone, enter 0 (zero) in the Duration field. The task will automatically be classified as a milestone. Answer option C is incorrect. This is a project constraint. Answer option B is incorrect. A project goal is an objective for time, cost, scope, and other metrics. Answer option D is incorrect. All activities must be completed in order to complete the project work. Activities that are not completed are quality issues that prevent the project from completing the project scope.
QUESTION 8
You are the project manager of the GHY Project. Management wants you to create a process improvement plan for your project. Your project will be studied by management and will become a standard for all future organizational projects based on your project’s performance, approach, and implementation of project processes. All of the following should be included in your project’s process improvement plan except for which one?
A. Process boundaries
B. Process configuration
C. Targets for improved performance
D. Identification of project risks

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Identification of the project risks is not part of the process improvement plan. Identify risks is a risk management process, and risks are recorded in the risk register. Answer options A, B, and C are incorrect. Process boundaries, Process configuration and Targets for improved performance are parts of the process improvement plan.
QUESTION 9
George is the project manager of the NHQ Project and has a budget of $778,000. The project is scheduled to last for one year with an equal amount of work completed each quarter. The second quarter of the project has ended and George has spent $325,000 but has only finished forty percent of the project. Management needs a variance report for the project schedule. What value should George report in this instance?
A. .96
B. -$77,800
C. $-34,500
D. -$13,800
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula: SV = Earned Value (EV) – Planned Value (PV) If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target. The earned value in this instance is forty percent of the project budget, $778,000, and the planned value is $398,000 because George is to be fifty percent done at the end of the second quarter, as the work is spread evenly across all quarters. The schedule variance is -$77,800 for the project. Answer option A is incorrect. .96
represents the cost performance index. Answer option C is incorrect. -$34,500 represents the project’s
variance at completion if the project continues as is.
Answer option D is incorrect. -$13,800 is the cost variance for the project.

QUESTION 10
You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. Management has set a conformance to the project schedule for your project at 0.95. What does this term mean?
A. It means the largest schedule variance you can have is five percent.
B. It is the earned value divided by the planned value for your project.
C. It is the expectation of management to be 95 on schedule at 95 percent of the project.
D. It means you will need to earn at least 95 cents per dollar invested in the project.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Conformance to schedule is a required adherence for the project’s schedule. In this instance, the project manager must not allow the schedule to slip more than five percent. Answer option B is incorrect. This is the description of the schedule performance index. Answer option D is incorrect. This is the description of the cost performance index. Answer option C is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the project performance.
QUESTION 11
Which one of the following estimate types is a form of expert judgment?
A. Parametric estimate
B. Analogous estimate
C. Bottom-up estimate
D. Definitive estimate

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An analogous estimate is a form of expert judgment because it relies on historical information. The historical information, assuming that it is accurate, serves as the conduit to the expert that created the historical information. Answer option C is incorrect. A bottom-up estimate creates an activity duration estimate for each work package in the WBS. Answer option A is incorrect. Parametric estimating uses a parameter, such as 10 hours per fixture installation, as a base to predict the duration of the project. Answer option D is incorrect. A definitive estimate, also known as a bottom-up estimate, accounts for the cost of each work package.
QUESTION 12
You are the project manager of the NHA Project. This project is expected to last one year with quarterly milestones throughout the year. Your project is supposed to be at the third milestone today but you’re likely only 60 percent complete. Your project has a BAC of $745,000 and you’ve spent $440,000 of the budget-to-date. What is your schedule performance index for this project?
A. 80
B. 1.02
C. 102
D. 0.80
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The schedule performance index can be found by dividing the earned value by the planned value. In this
project, it’s $447,000 divided by the $558,750 for a value of 0.80. Schedule performance index (SPI) is the
measure of schedule efficiency on a project. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance.
SPI is the ratio of earned value to planned value. The SPI is calculated based on the following formula:
SPI = Earned Value (EV) / Planned Value (PV)
If the SPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance, whereas if the value is
less than 1, it shows poor performance. The SPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target.
Answer option A is incorrect. “80” is not the same value as “.80”. Answer option B is incorrect. 1.02 is the
cost performance index. Answer option C is incorrect. 102 is not a valid calculation for this question.

QUESTION 13
Mark is the project manager of the GHQ Project. He is happily reporting that his project has a schedule performance index of 2.12. Management, however, does not think this is good news. What is the most likely reason why management does not like an SPI of 2.12?
A. It is not good news because a larger number means the schedule duration estimates were likely to be wrong to begin with.
B. They likely do not understand the SPI formula.
C. It is not good news, as the number should be closer to 100 than 0.
D. It is good news, but Mark may have large cost variances to achieve this value.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cost and schedule performance indexes should be as close to 1 as possible. A larger value, such as 2.12, means that the schedule duration estimates were likely bloated or incorrect to begin with. Answer option B is incorrect. This is not the best choice for this question. Answer option C is incorrect. The number should not be close to 100; it should be close to 1. Answer option D is incorrect. While Mark may have crashed the schedule and driven up costs to achieve the SPI value, a more likely reason is that the time estimates were bloated.
QUESTION 14
You are the project manager of the BHG Project. You are creating a network diagram as shown in the figure: Mary, a project team member, reports that an identified risk is likely to happen in the project that will affect the completion date of Activity D . She reports that the risk event will likely cause the duration of the activity to increase by six days. If this happens what is the earliest the project can complete?

A. 32 days
B. 29 days
C. 27 days
D. 26 days

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If Activity D increases by six days, the duration of the project will not change. There is 11 days of float available for Activity D so it may delay by six days without affecting the project end date. What is float? Float or total float (TF) is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating a schedule constraint. It is calculated by using the critical path method technique and determining the difference between the early finish dates and late finish dates. Answer options A, B, and C are incorrect. These are not valid answers for the question.
QUESTION 15
Sam is the project manager of the NQQ project. He and the project team have completed the stakeholder identification process for his project. What is the main output of the identify stakeholders process?
A. Communications management plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Requirements
D. Stakeholder management strategy

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

According to the PMBOK, the main output of the identify stakeholders process is the stakeholder register.
The stakeholder register is a project management document that contains a list of the stakeholders
associated with the project. It assesses how they are involved in the project and identifies what role they
play in the organization. The information in this document can be very perceptive and is meant for limited
exchange only. It also contains relevant information about the stakeholders, such as their requirements,
expectations, and influence on the project. Answer option A is incorrect. The communications
management plan is an output of communications planning.
Answer option D is incorrect. The stakeholder management strategy is an output of stakeholder
identification, but it is not the main output.
Answer option C is incorrect. Requirements are not an output of the stakeholder identification process.

QUESTION 16
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you not to communicate performance unless the CPI is less than 0.96 or the SPI dips below 0.98. What type of report would you create for management, if these instances develop in your project?
A. Cost variance report
B. Exceptions report
C. Performance management report
D. Schedule variance report

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The best answer is simply an exception report. An exception report refers and documents the major mistakes, mishaps, and goofs. In other words, it itemizes the important and critically significant piece of documentation that is vital to the proper and effective functioning of a project. It does not document what has gone right, but rather documents what has gone wrong. Answer option C is incorrect. A performance management report is not a valid project management report. Answer option A is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule. Answer option D is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule.
QUESTION 17
You are the project manager of the HQQ Project. Your project is running late by ten percent of where you should be at this time. Management is concerned. Considering that the project has a BAC of $567,899, you are thirty percent complete, and you have spent $179,450. What is this project’s to- complete performance index based on the current BAC?
A. 1.02
B. 0.010
C. 0.75
D. 0.95

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This project is not performing well on schedule, but moderately well on costs. The project’s TCPI based on the current BAC is 1.02. To-complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the measured projection of the anticipated performance required to achieve either the BAC or the EAC. TCPI indicates the future required cost efficiency needed to achieve a target EAC (Estimate At Complete).Once approved, the EAC supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. Any significant difference between TCPI and the CPI needed to meet the EAC should be accounted for by management in their forecast of the final cost. The formula for TCPI is as follows: TCPI = {(BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)} Answer option D is incorrect. 0.95 is the project’s TCPI value based on the estimate at completion. Answer option C is incorrect. 0.75 is the project’s schedule performance index. Answer option B is incorrect. 0.010 is not a valid calculation.
QUESTION 18
Andy works as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. He is developing the schedule for the project. There are eight tools and techniques that a project manager can use to develop the project schedule. Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Schedule Development process?
A. Schedule compression
B. Reserve analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Expert judgment
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Schedule compression is a tool used as part of the Schedule Development process. The tools and techniques for schedule development are as follows: Schedule network analysis Critical path method Critical chain method Resource leveling What-if scenario analysis Applying leads and lags Schedule compression Scheduling tool Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. These are not tools and techniques for schedule development.
QUESTION 19
You are the project manager for your organization. You have recorded the following duration estimates for an activity in your project: optimistic 20, most likely 45, pessimistic 90. What time will you record for this activity?
A. 48
B. 20o, 45m, 90p
C. 90
D. 45

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This is an example of a three-point estimate. A three-point estimate records the optimistic, most likely, and the pessimistic duration, and then records an average for the predicted duration Three-point estimate is a way to enhance the accuracy of activity duration estimates. This concept is originated with the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT). PERT charts the following three estimates: Most likely (TM): The duration of activity based on realistic factors such as resources assigned, interruptions, etc. Optimistic (TO): The activity duration based on the best-case scenario Pessimistic (TP): The activity duration based on the worst-case scenario The expected (TE) activity duration is a weighted average of these three estimates: TE = (TO + 4TM + TP) / 6 Duration estimates based on the above equations (sometimes simple average of the three estimates is also used) provide more accuracy. It can be calculated as follows: TE = ( 20 + 45*4 + 90) / 6 = 290/6 =48 Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not the valid answers for this question.
QUESTION 20
You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. You have created the project network diagram as shown in the figure: You are concerned about a risk on Activity G that if it happens will delay the project by four days. You would like to utilize float for Activity G. How much float is available for Activity G to help offset the risk event?

A. Five days
B. Four days
C. Eleven days
D. Zero

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There is no float available for Activity G because it is on the critical path. Float or total float (TF) is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating a schedule constraint. It is calculated by using the critical path method technique and determining the difference between the early finish dates and late finish dates. Answer options B, A, and C are incorrect. There is no float available for Activity G because it is on the critical path.
QUESTION 21
Beth is the project manager for her organization. Her current project has many deliverables that have been defined at a high level, but the details of the deliverables are still unknown. In her project, Beth is planning in detail only the activities that are most imminent in the project work. This approach to project management planning is known as what?
A. Imminent activity management
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Predecessor-only diagramming
D. Decomposition
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Rolling wave planning is a technique to plan and do the most imminent project work before moving onto the details that are far off in the project schedule and project plan. Rolling wave planning is a technique for performing progressive elaboration planning where the work to be accomplished in the near future is
planned in detail at a low level of the work breakdown structure. The work to be performed within another
one or two reporting periods in the near future is planned in detail as work is being completed during the
current period.
Answer option D is incorrect. Decomposition is the process of breaking down work packages into the
activity list.
Answer options A and C are incorrect. These are not valid project management terms.

QUESTION 22
Gina is the project manager for her organization and she is working with her project team to define the project activities. In this project, the stakeholders are sensitive to the project completion date, so Gina is stressing to her project team members that while they need to provide and account for all of the project activities, they should focus on one work package in the WBS at a time. In order to start the decomposition of the project work packages into activities, Gina will need all of the following except for which one?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. WBS
D. Enterprise environmental factors

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK, Gina will not need the WBS directly, but will rely on the scope baseline. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) in project management is a tool that defines a project and groups the project’s discrete work elements in a way that helps organize and define the total work scope of the project. A WBS element may be a product, data, a service, or any combination. WBS also provides the necessary framework for detailed cost estimating and control along with providing guidance for schedule development and control. Answer option A is incorrect. The scope baseline is an input to define the project activities. Answer option D is incorrect. Enterprise environmental factors are an input to define the project activities. Answer option B is incorrect. Organizational process assets are an input to define the project activities.
QUESTION 23
You have created the project network diagram for the ABC project. You are exploring total float and free float for that project. Martin, a project team member, wants to know the difference between total float and free float. What is the difference between total float and free float?
A. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date.
B. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project successors.
C. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project predecessors.
D. Total float is the amount of time a non-critical activity can be delayed without delaying any project successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date.
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Total float is the time you can delay an activity without delaying the project end date, whereas free float is on each activity and does not affect the early start date of successor activities. Float, also called slack, is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting any subsequent activities. There are two types of floats available: Free Float: It is the amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following schedule activities. https://www.pass4itsure.com/pmi-sp.html Total Float: It is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating schedule constraint. Float is calculated by using the critical path method technique. Answer options C, A, and D are incorrect. These are not accurate definitions of free float and total float.

PMI PMI-RMP PDF Dumps, Best PMI PMI-RMP Real Certification Material With 100% Pass Rate

PMI PMI-RMP isn’t just ideal for college students it also occasion preserving by giving readymade at home alternatives and the one can possibly conserve the efforts by avoid wandering here and there seeking a competent mentor.PMI PMI-RMP qualified college students are getting a lot more than their expectations inside market place simply because PMI PMI-RMP will be involving great market value. If you should often hear via all of your close friends or buddie ahead of regarding PMI https://www.pass4itsure.com/pmi-rmp.html exam. however, you may not get given a significant shown to PMI PMI-RMP exam sample questions because of various worries about this technique involving PMI PMI-RMP exam then it’s high time pertaining to deciding concerning Flydumps regarding boosting prospective buyers associated with our bait.

QUESTION 1
Lisa is the project manager of the SQL project for her company. She has completed the risk response planning with her project team and is now ready to update the risk register to reflect the risk response. Which of the following statements best describes the level of detail Lisa should include with the risk responses she has created?
A. The level of detail is set by historical information.
B. The level of detail should correspond with the priority ranking.
C. The level of detail must define exactly the risk response for each identified risk.
D. The level of detail is set of project risk governance.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
B. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
C. The events should be entered into the risk register.
D. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share information on the project risks?
A. Risk Management Plan
B. Stakeholder management strategy
C. Resource Management Plan
D. Communications Management Plan

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Your project is using a new material to construct a large warehouse in your city. This new material is cheaper than traditional building materials, but it takes some time to learn how to use the material properly. You have communicated to the project stakeholders that you will be able to save costs by using the new material, but you will need a few extra weeks to complete training to use the materials. This risk response of learning how to use the new materials can also be known as what term?
A. Team development
B. Benchmarking
C. Cost of conformance to quality
D. Cost-benefits analysis

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Jenny is the project manager of the NHJ Project for her company. She has identified several positive risk events within the project and she thinks these events can save the project time and money. You, a new team member wants to know that how many risk responses are available for a positive risk event.
What will Jenny reply to you?
A. Four
B. Three
C. Seven
D. Acceptance is the only risk response for positive risk events.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
You are working with Anna on your project to determine and map the probability distributions of risk within the project. You have indicated that you will use the uniform distribution method for a portion of the project. Which part of your project is most likely to have a uniform risk distribution?
A. Late completion stages of a project
B. Project phases that deal with “cutover” technologies
C. Early concept stage of design
D. Project initiating

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
You are the project manager of the GYH project for your organization. Management has asked you to begin identifying risks and to use an information gathering technique. Which one of the following risk identification approaches is an information gathering technique?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Assumptions analysis
C. SWOT analysis
D. Documentation reviews

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Sammy is the project manager for her organization. She would like to rate each risk based on its probability and affect on time, cost, and scope. Harry, a project team member, has never done this before and thinks Sammy is wrong to attempt this approach. Harry says that an accumulative risk score should be created, not three separate risk scores. Who is correct in this scenario?
A. Harry is correct, because the risk probability and impact considers all objectives of the project.
B. Harry is correct, the risk probability and impact matrix is the only approach to risk assessment.
C. Sammy is correct, because organizations can create risk scores for each objective of the project.
D. Sammy is correct, because she is the project manager.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Your organization has named you the project manager of the JKN Project. This project has a BAC of $1,500,000 and it is expected to last 18 months. Management has agreed that if the schedule baseline has a variance of more than five percent then you will need to crash the project. What happens when the project manager crashes a project?
A. Project risks will increase.
B. The project will take longer to complete, but risks will diminish.
C. Project costs will increase.
D. The amount of hours a resource can be used will diminish.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
Kelly is the project manager of the BHH project for her organization. She is completing the risk identification process for this portion of her project. Which one of the following is the only thing that the risk identification process will create for Kelly?
A. Risk register
B. Risk register updates
C. Change requests
D. Project document updates

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
You are the project manager of the NHQ Project for your company. You have completed qualitative and quantitative analysis of your identified project risks and you would now like to find an approach to increase project opportunities and to reduce threats within the project. What project management process would best help you?
A. Monitor and control project risks
B. Create a risk governance approach
C. Create the project risk register
D. Plan risk responses

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Virginia is the project manager for her organization. She has hired a subject matter expert to interview the project stakeholders on certain identified risks within the project. The subject matter expert will assess the risk event with what specific goal in mind?
A. To determine the level of probability and impact for each risk event
B. To determine the bias of the risk event based on each person interviewed
C. To determine the probability and cost of the risk event
D. To determine the validity of each risk event

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
You are preparing to start the qualitative risk analysis process for your project. You will be relying on some organizational process assets to influence the process. Which one of the following is NOT a probable reason for relying on organizational process assets as an input for qualitative risk analysis?
A. Studies of similar projects by risk specialists
B. Risk databases that may be available from industry sources
C. Review of vendor contracts to examine risks in past projects
D. Information on prior, similar projects

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You want to create a visual diagram, which can depict the resources that will be used within the project. Which of the following diagrams will you create to accomplish the task?
A. Roles and responsibility matrix
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. RACI chart

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Examine the figure given below.

What will be the expected monetary value of Risk C?
A. -$113,750
B. $175,000 if the risk event actually happens
C. -$175,000
D. -$27,000

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
John is the project manager of the NHQ Project for his company. His project has 75 stakeholders, some of which are external to the organization. John needs to make certain that he communicates about risk in the most appropriate method for the external stakeholders. Which project management plan will be the best guide for John to communicate to the external stakeholders?
A. Risk Response Plan
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Communications Management Plan
D. Project Management Plan

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
You are the project manager of the KJH Project and are working with your project team to plan the risk responses. Consider that your project has a budget of $500,000 and is expected to last six months. Within the KJH Project you have identified a risk event that has a probability of .70 and has a cost impact of $350,000. When it comes to creating a risk response for this event what is the risk exposure of the event that must be considered for the cost of the risk response?
A. The risk exposure of the event is $245,000.
B. The risk exposure of the event is $500,000.
C. The risk exposure of the event is $350,000.
D. The risk exposure of the event is $850,000.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
What risk identification technique allows participants to identify the project risks and to remain anonymous?
A. Influence diagrams
B. Assumptions analysis
C. Surveys
D. Delphi technique

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
John works as a project manager for ABD project. He and his team, are working on the following activities:

Relative ranking or priority list of project risks

Watchlists of low priority risk

Trends in Qualitative Risk Analysis results

On which of the following processes is John working on?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
There are five outputs of the risk monitoring and controlling process. Which one of the following is NOT an output of the process?
A. Organizational process assets updates
B. Risk register updates
C. Vendor contracts
D. Change requests

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
You are the project manager of the NHJ project for your company. This project has a budget at completion of $1,650,000 and you are 60 percent complete. According to the project plan, however, the project should be 65 percent complete. In this project you have spent $995,000 to reach this point of completion. There is a risk that this project may be late so you have taken some measures to recover the project schedule. Management would like to know, based on current performance, what the estimate at completion for this project will be. What is the estimate at completion?
A. $1,650,000
B. $1,666,667
C. $663,333
D. -$8,333

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Frank is the project manager of the NHQ project for his company. Frank is working with the project team, key stakeholders, and several subject matter experts on risks dealing with the new materials in the project. Frank wants to utilize a risk analysis method that will help the team to make decisions in the presence of the current uncertainty surrounding the new materials. Which risk analysis approach can Frank use to create an approach to make decisions in the presence of uncertainty?
A. Monte Carlo Technique
B. Qualitative risk analysis process
C. Quantitative risk analysis process
D. Delphi Technique

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
You are a risk auditor for your company. You are reviewing the contract types a project manager has used in her project. Of the following, which contract type has the most risk for the project manager as a buyer?
A. Cost plus percentage of costs
B. Time and material
C. Cost plus incentive fee
D. Fixed-price, incentive fee

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Jane is the project manager of the GBB project for her company. In the current project a vendor has offered the project a ten percent discount based if they will order 100 units for the project. It is possible that the GBB Project may need the 100 units, but the cost of the units is not a top priority for the project. Jane documents the offer and tells the vendor that they will keep the offer in mind and continue with the project as planned. What risk response has been given in this project?
A. Acceptance
B. Enhance
C. Exploiting
D. Sharing

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
You are the project manager of the GHE Project. You have identified the following risks with the characteristics as shown in the following figure: How much capital should the project set aside for the risk contingency reserve?

A. $142,000
B. $41,750
C. $23,750
D. $232,000

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
You are project manager for ABD project. You, with your team, are working on the following activities:

Probabilistic analysis of a project.

Probability of achieving cost and time objectives.

Trends in Qualitative Risk Analysis results.

On which of the following processes are you working on?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Identify Risks

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Shelly is the project manager of the BUF project for her company. In this project Shelly needs to establish some rules to reduce the influence of risk bias during the qualitative risk analysis process. What method can Shelly take to best reduce the influence of risk bias?
A. Group stakeholders according to positive and negative stakeholders and then complete the risk analysis
B. Determine the risk root cause rather than the person identifying the risk events
C. Establish risk boundaries
D. Establish definitions of the level of probability and impact of risk event

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Tom is the project manager for his organization. In his project he has recently finished the risk response planning. He tells his manager that he will now need to update the cost and schedule baselines. Why would the risk response planning cause Tom the need to update the cost and schedule baselines?
A. New or omitted work as part of a risk response can cause changes to the cost and/or schedule baseline.
B. Risk responses protect the time and investment of the project.
C. Risk responses may take time and money to implement.
D. Baselines should not be updated, but refined through versions.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Tracy is the project manager of the NLT Project for her company. The NLT Project is scheduled to last 14 months and has a budget at completion of $4,555,000. Tracy’s organization will receive a bonus of $80,000 per day that the project is completed early up to $800,000. Tracy realizes that there are several opportunities within the project to save on time by crashing the project work. Crashing the project is what type of risk response?
A. Transference
B. Mitigation
C. Exploit
D. Enhance
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Which risk response is acceptable for both positive and negative risk events?
A. Transferring
B. Acceptance
C. Sharing
D. Enhancing

Correct Answer: B

There are a lot of sites provide the PMI PMI-RMP exam certification and other training materials for you . Passcert is only website which can provide you PMI PMI-RMP exam certification with high quality. In the guidance and help of Flydumps, you can through your PMI https://www.pass4itsure.com/pmi-rmp.html exam the first time. The PMI PMI-RMP practice test provided by Flydumps are IT experts use their extensive knowledge and experience manufacturing out. It can help your future in the IT industry to the next level.

PMI PMI-200 Exam Download, Offer PMI PMI-200 PDF Will Be More Popular

To comprehend prospect can come employment progress and better shell out. PMI PMI-200 exam sample questions give Technological innovation individuals having little if any PMI PMI-200 have the understanding in addition to expertise necessary to break into the particular really beneficial in addition to challenging Enterasys Networks occupation. It is important to hold this PMI PMI-200 ahead of getting FLYDUMPS PMI PMI-200 exam sample questions. To move the particular PMI https://www.pass4itsure.com/pmi-200.html exam isn’t a difficult job. You’ve just got a desire to have particular procedures regarding accomplishing good results. PMI PMI-200 exam sample questions are certainly useful when you are always keeping your preparation very efficient and ascend into the level. Concerning PMI PMI-200 exam, a myriad of certificates examinations usually are computer-based therefore the examinees may possibly learn their own test success soon after test. With a lot more PMI PMI-200 option are provided work growing and pay back.

QUESTION 1
What key beneftt might ttakeholdert realize from an Agile approach?
A. The ability to bypatt the change-management procett, intertng new requirementt and changet directly into the team at they meet daily
B. The early and contnuout delivery of valuable tofware, providing increated vitibility and the opportunity for more frequent adjuttmentt
C. Increated accett to the project and lett reliance on formal reportt and ttatut meetngt to beter underttand the current work and the ritkt the team it acceptng
D. The team’t feeibility to make changet mid-iteraton at butinett needt or prioritet change, increating the ability of the team to meet project commitmentt

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
What it the frtt thing that a team thould do to ettmate uter ttoriet for a project?
A. Sort the uter ttoriet according to priority.
B. Schedule a team meetng to underttand them.
C. Defne the ttory pointt meature.
D. Ettmate through functon point analytit.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
A ttory point it the:
A. Relatve meature of the tize of a uter ttory.
B. Duraton it taket to complete a uter ttory.
C. Priority of the uter ttory in the backlog.
D. Butinett value of the uter ttory.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
According to the Agile Manifetto, which of the following detcribet the more valued itemt?
A. Cuttomer collaboraton, following a plan, working tofware, and individual interactont
B. Working tofware, individual interactont, retponding to change, and comprehentive documentaton
C. Individual interactont, working tofware, cuttomer collaboraton, and retponding to change
D. Retponding to change, individual interactont, procettet and toolt, and cuttomer collaboraton

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
On a partcular project, product quality it being meatured at regular intervalt and it contittently below the acceptable level. In a Lean environment, how thould thit problem be addretted?
A. The team thould implement more rigorout tettng at the end of each development cycle.
B. Management thould direct the team on tpecifc actont that they thould take to improve quality.
C. Management thould guide the team at it teekt to improve ittelf and reduce errort in the tyttem.
D. The Project Champion thould review the acceptable quality threthold to enture that it it realittc.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
In reference to Scrum, each tprint thould produce:
A. An increment of potentally thippable product functonality.
B. A tet of documented product requirementt and tpecifcatont.
C. A releate with tettable and meaturable functonality.
D. An increment of potentally tettable product functonality.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
The primary purpote of a Sprint Review it for the team to:
A. Demonttrate what wat accomplithed during the tprint.
B. Ditcutt what went well, what didn’t, and wayt to improve.
C. Prioritze and ettmate ttoriet planned for the neet tprint.
D. Individually provide ttatut updatet on uter ttoriet in progrett.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
On what thould Agile ettmatet be bated?
A. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) from each iteraton aligned with the project management plan
B. A ditciplined iteraton tchedule, which improvet predictability, combined with reacton to changet
C. Ball park fguret collected from patt Agile projectt with tcopet timilar to the current project
D. Inital retource breakdown bated on the available perton dayt in the full project duraton

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
A value ttream map it a tool uted to identfy the:
A. Watte acrott the entre procett.
B. Highett value product featuret.
C. Mott valuable team interactont.
D. Mott likely fow of project ritkt.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
When ettmatng inital velocity, the team thould mott likely:
A. Ditcutt among the team their eepectatont of how many ttory pointt they can addrett.
B. Ute a Kanban workfow to identfy ttept and calculate velocity.
C. Ute velocity of patt iteratont or make a calculated guett.
D. Ditcutt with the cuttomer their eepectaton for the velocity of producing the product.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
Afer three iteratont, the problemt impeding an Agile team appear to be timilar in nature to problemt faced in earlier iteratont. Intpecton of the retrotpectvet for patt iteratont revealt informaton organized into columnt enttled “What worked for ut” and “What did not work for ut. ” Bated on thit informaton, one can infer that the team did not capture:
A. uter ttoriet
B. milettonet
C. acton itemt
D. requirementt

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
Which it the bett opton to improve project velocity?
A. Shield programmert from interruptont
B. Minimize cuttomer involvement
C. Shorten the iteraton length
D. Increate project team tize

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
A company it ttartng to introduce Agile practcet, and the project manager hat been atked to identfy how to introduce the new procett. The project manager’t inital plan thould be to:
A. Intttute daily ttandup meetngt immediately.
B. Communicate the Agile Manifetto to the team.
C. Balance teaching principlet with Agile practcet.
D. Rate the team’t progrett in learning new methodt.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
A project team it dittributed acrott multple countriet, and they are having ittuet agreeing on what it being delivered and how it thould be developed. Which of the following thould the project manager do to alleviate tome of the tention between team membert, break down cultural barriert, and improve communicaton?
A. Atk the team to communicate only through email to clearly document ittuet.
B. Ditcutt thit ittue with tenior management and recommend that the team be co-located.
C. Monitor performance and ditcutt the ittuet in detail at the neet retrotpectve.
D. Hold daily ttandup meetngt with the two teamt at a tme that workt bett for everyone.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
Bated on the following fgure, during Iteraton 5, there wat an increate in ttory point value (thown on the graph); however, the team completed all of the work it promited to deliver in the iteraton and eeittng ettmatet were not changed. From thit informaton, one can inferthat:

A. Work wat removed from the Product Backlog.
B. Work wat added to the Product Backlog.
C. The team’t velocity increated.
D. The team’t velocity decreated.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Contnuout integraton enturet that a product it:
A. Ready to thip when all featuret are complete.
B. Delivered for tettng at the end of each day.
C. Technologically ready to deploy at any tme.
D. Deployed afer fnal butinett approvalt.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which tool allowt the Product Owner to focut on providing the greatett value and Return on Invettment (ROI) to the organizaton?
A. Burn up chart
B. Product Backlog
C. Afnity ettmate
D. Cott Beneft Analytit (CBA)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
The bett detcripton of the purpote of the daily ttandup in Agile projectt it to:
A. Retolve the key ittuet and ritkt that are likely to hinder project progrett.
B. Provide intight and reatturance to the Product Owner to ttrengthen that relatonthip.
C. Inform the project lead of project ttatut for reportng to ttakeholdert.

Flydumps is ready to provide PMI PMI-200 exam training materials which can be very much helpful for getting PMI PMI-200 certification, which means that candidates.PMI https://www.pass4itsure.com/pmi-200.html exam can easily get access to the services of PMI PMI-200 for practice exam, which will assure them 100% PMI PMI-200 exam success rate.Though PMI PMI-200 exam tests are not easy at all,but they do not make PMI PMI-200 things complicated.