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Update Microsoft AZ-304 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
You have an on-premises Active Directory forest and an Azure Active Directory Azure AD) tenant. All Azure AD users
are assigned a Premium P1 license.
You deploy Azure AD Conned
Which two features ate available m this environment that can reduce operational overhead tot your company\\’s help
desk? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point
A. sell- service password reset
B. access review
C. password writeback
D. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management policies
E. Microsoft Cloud App Security Conditional at Access App Control
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is a part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription named Project1. Only a group named Project1admins is assigned roles in the Project1
subscription. The Project1 subscription contains all the resources for an application named Application1.
Your company is developing a new application named Application2. The members of the Application2 development
team belongs to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group named App2Dev.
You identify the following requirements for Application2:
1.
The members of App2Dev must be prevented from changing the role assignments in Azure.
2.
The members of App2Dev must be able to create new Azure resources required by Application2.
3.
All the required role assignments for Application2 will be performed by the members of Project1admins.
You need to recommend a solution for the role assignments of Application2.
Solution: In Project1, create a network security group (NSG) named NSG1. Assign Project1admins the Owner role for
NSG1. Assign the App2Dev the Contributor role for NSG1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You should use a separate subscription for Project2.

QUESTION 3
You ate designing a SQL database solution. The solution will include 20 databases that will be 20 GB each and have
varying usage patterns. You need to recommend a database platform to host the databases. The solution must meet
the following requirements:
1.
The compute resources allocated to the databases must scale dynamically.
2.
The solution must meet an SLA of 99.99% uptime.
3.
The solution must have reserved capacity.
4.
Compute charges must be minimized. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. 20 databases on a Microsoft SQL server that runs on an Azure virtual machine
B. 20 instances of Azure SQL Database serverless
C. 20 databases on a Microsoft SQL server that runs on an Azure virtual machine in an availability set
D. an elastic pool that contains 20 Azure SQL databases
Correct Answer: D
Azure SQL Database elastic pools are a simple, cost-effective solution for managing and scaling multiple databases that
have varying and unpredictable usage demands. The databases in an elastic pool are on a single server and share a
set number of resources at a set price. Elastic pools in Azure SQL Database enable SaaS developers to optimize the
price performance for a group of databases within a prescribed budget while delivering performance elasticity for each
database.
Guaranteed 99.995 percent uptime for SQL Database
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/database/elastic-pool-overview
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/sql-database/elastic/

……

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[Online] Microsoft Role-based AZ-304 practice questions for free (1-13)

QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a strategy for the web tier of WebApp1. The solution must minimize. What should you
recommend?
A. Create a runbook that resizes virtual machines automatically to a smaller size outside of business hours.
B. Configure the Scale Up settings for a web app.
C. Deploy a virtual machine scale set that scales out on a 75 percent CPU threshold.
D. Configure the Scale Out settings for a web app.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a high-availability solution for the middle tier of the payment processing system. What should
you include in the recommendation?
A. availability zones
B. an availability set
C. the Premium App Service plan
D. the Isolated App Server plan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have an on-premises Hyper-V cluster that hosts 20 virtual machines. Some virtual machines run Windows Server
2016 and some run Linux.
You plan to migrate the virtual machines to an Azure subscription.
You need to recommend a solution to replicate the disks of the virtual machines to Azure. The solution must ensure that
the virtual machines remain available during the migration of the disks.
Solution: You recommend implementing a Recovery Services vault, and then using Azure Site Recovery.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Site Recovery can replicate on-premises VMware VMs, Hyper-V VMs, physical servers (Windows and Linux), Azure
Stack VMs to Azure.
Note: Site Recovery helps ensure business continuity by keeping business apps and workloads running during outages.
Site Recovery replicates workloads running on physical and virtual machines (VMs) from a primary site to a secondary
location. When an outage occurs at your primary site, you fail over to secondary location, and access apps from there.
After the primary location is running again, you can fail back to it.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-overview

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have an existing implementation of Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages stored in an
SSISDB catalog on your on-premises network. The on-premises network does not have hybrid connectivity to Azure by
using
Site-to-Site VPN or ExpressRoute.
You want to migrate the packages to Azure Data Factory.
You need to recommend a solution that facilitates the migration while minimizing changes to the existing packages. The
solution must minimize costs.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

az-304 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

az-304 exam questions-q4-2

Box 1: Azure SQL database You can\\’t create the SSISDB Catalog database on Azure SQL Database at this time
independently of creating the Azure-SSIS Integration Runtime in Azure Data Factory. The Azure-SSIS IR is the runtime
environment that runs SSIS packages on Azure.
Box 2: Azure-SQL Server Integration Service Integration Runtime and self-hosted integration runtime
The Integration Runtime (IR) is the compute infrastructure used by Azure Data Factory to provide data integration
capabilities across different network environments. Azure-SSIS Integration Runtime (IR) in Azure Data Factory (ADF)
supports
running SSIS packages.
Self-hosted integration runtime can be used for data movement in this scenario.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/create-azure-integration-runtime
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/lift-shift/ssis-azure-connect-to-catalog-database

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure Storage v2 account named storage1.
You plan to archive data to storage1.
You need to ensure that the archived data cannot be deleted for five years. The solution must prevent administrators
from deleting the data.
Solution: You create a file share and snapshots.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead you could create an Azure Blob storage container, and you configure a legal hold access policy.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage


QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the payment processing system. What should you
include in the recommendation?
A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption
B. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption
C. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
D. Azure Storage Service Encryption
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
The developers at your company are building a containerized Python Django app.
You need to recommend platform to host the app. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Support autoscaling.
Support continuous deployment from an Azure Container Registry.
Provide built-in functionality to authenticate app users by using Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
Which platform should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure Container instances
B. an Azure App Service instance that uses containers
C. Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS)
Correct Answer: C
To keep up with application demands in Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS), you may need to adjust the number of nodes
that run your workloads. The cluster autoscaler component can watch for pods in your cluster that can\\’t be scheduled
because of resource constraints. When issues are detected, the number of nodes in a node pool is increased to meet
the application demand.
Azure Container Registry is a private registry for hosting container images. It integrates well with orchestrators like
Azure Container Service, including Docker Swarm, DC/OS, and the new Azure Kubernetes service. Moreover, ACR
provides capabilities such as Azure Active Directory-based authentication, webhook support, and delete operations.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/cluster-autoscaler

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
Your company is designing a multi-tenant application that will use elastic pools and Azure SQL databases. The
application will be used by 30 customers.
You need to design a storage solution for the application. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Operational costs must be minimized.
All customers must have their own database.
The customer databases will be in one of the following three Azure regions: East US, North Europe, or South Africa
North.
What is the minimum number of elastic pools and Azure SQL Database servers required? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

az-304 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

az-304 exam questions-q8-2

https://vincentlauzon.com/2016/12/18/azure-sql-elastic-pool-overview/


QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a backup solution for the data store of the payment processing system. What should you
include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM)
B. Azure Backup Server
C. Azure SQL long-term backup retention
D. Azure Managed Disks
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-long-term-backup-retention-configure


QUESTION 10
You are designing an Azure solution.
The network traffic for the solution must be securely distributed by providing the following features:
HTTPS protocol
Round robin routing
SSL offloading
You need to recommend a load balancing option.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Load Balancer
B. Azure Internal Load Balancer (ILB)
C. Azure Traffic Manager
D. Azure Application Gateway
Correct Answer: D
If you are looking for Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol termination (“SSL offload”) or per-HTTP/HTTPS request,
application-layer processing, review Application Gateway.
Application Gateway is a layer 7 load balancer, which means it works only with web traffic (HTTP, HTTPS, WebSocket,
and HTTP/2). It supports capabilities such as SSL termination, cookie-based session affinity, and round robin for loadbalancing traffic. Load Balancer load-balances traffic at layer 4 (TCP or UDP).
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-faq

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a solution for the collection of security logs the middle tier of the payment processing system.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure Notification Hubs
B. the Azure Diagnostics agent
C. Azure Event Hubs
D. the Azure Log Analytics agent
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
Your company has the divisions shown in the following table.

az-304 exam questions-q12

You plan to deploy a custom application to each subscription. The application will contain the following:
A resource group
An Azure web app
Custom role assignments
An Azure Cosmos DB account
You need to use Azure Blueprints to deploy the application to each subscription.
What is the minimum number of objects required to deploy the application? To answer, select the appropriate options in
the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

az-304 exam questions-q12-2

Correct Answer:
az-304 exam questions-q12-3

QUESTION 13
You need to recommend a solution to meet the database retention requirement. What should you recommend?
A. Configure geo-replication of the database.
B. Configure a long-term retention policy for the database.
C. Configure Azure Site Recovery.
D. Use automatic Azure SQL Database backups.
Correct Answer: B

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You plan to test a new deployment by using 50 tenant user accounts.
You need to ensure that the passwords for the test user accounts do not expire.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MsolUserPrincipalName
B. Set-MailUser
C. Convert-MsolFederatedUser
D. Set-MsolUser
E. Set-MsolUserLicense
F. New-MsolUser
G. Set-LinkedUser
H. Redo-MsolProvisionUser
Answer: D   648-232 vce

NO.2 DRAG DROP
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
All employees in the human resources (HR) department must use multi-factor authentication. They
must use only the Microsoft Outlook client to access their email messages. User1 joins the HR
department.
You need to help User1 configure his account.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from
the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1:
Box 2:
Box 3.
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QUESTION NO: 16
The most common site used for measurement of the pulse during exercise is the
A. Popliteal.
B. Femoral.
C. Radial.
D. Dorsalis pedis.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
Blood from the peripheral anatomy flows to the heart through the superior and inferior venue
cavae into the
A. Right atrium.
B. Left atrium.
C. Right ventricle.
D. Left ventricle.
70-743 pdf 
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 18
arteries are large-diameter vessels that carry blood away from the heart. As they course through
the body, they progressively decrease in size until they become
A. Arterioles.
B. Anastomoses.
C. Venules.
D. Veins.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 19
The law of inertia
A. States that a body at rest tends to remain at rest, whereas a body in motion tends to continue
to stay in motion with consistent speed and in the same direction unless acted on by an outside
force
B. States that the velocity of a body is changed only when acted on by an additional force
C. States that the driving force of the body is doubled and that the rate of acceleration is also
doubled.
D. States that the production of any force will create another force that will be opposite and equal
to the first force.
70-743 vce 
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QUESTION NO: 20
Running is a locomotor activity similar to walking but with some differences. In comparison to
walking, running requires greater
A. Balance.
B. Muscle strength.
C. Range of motion.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 21
Who first described that a body immersed in a fluid is buoyed up with a force equal to the
weight of the displaced fluid?
A. Einstein.
B. Freud.
C. Whitehead.
D. Archimedes.
70-743 dumps Answer : D

QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following bones articulates proxi- mally with the sternal manubrium and distally with
the scapula and is helpful to palpate in electrode placement?
A. Scapula.
B. Sternum.
C. Clavicle.
D. Twelfth rib.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the “power position” used for lifting with proper
body mechanics?
A. Shoulders slouched.
B. Back straight.
C. The body bent forward from the hips.
D. Knees slightly bent.
70-743 exam 
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 24
The intervertebral disks have which of the following characteristics?
A. Calcified outer ring.
B. Gelatinous inner nucleus portion.
C. The gray matter surrounding the neural cell bodies.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 25
Pain caused by low back muscle guarding and spasm in the absence of signs of disk herniation is
often treated with muscle stretching. Which of the following is (are) helpful stretching activities for
the low back?
A. Knee to chest.

B. Double-knee to the chest.
C. Lower trunk rotation.
D. All of the above.
70-743 pdf 
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 26
Which of the following will increase stability?
A. Lowering the center of gravity.
B. Raising the center of gravity.
C. Decreasing the base of support.
D. Moving the center of gravity farther from the edge bf the base of support.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 27
Which type of musculoskeletal lever is most common?
A. First-class.
B. Second-class.
C. Third-class.
D. Fourth-class.
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Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 28
Angular motion occurs when
A. A force is applied off-center to a freely- moveable object.
B. A freely-movable object moves in a straight line when a force is applied on-center.
C. An object is free to move only in a linear path.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 29
In a second-class lever,
A. The Axis is located between the effort force and the resistance.
B. The resistance is located between the effort force and the axis.
C. The effort force is located between the resistance and the axis.
D. None of the above.
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Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 30
Slapping of the foot during heel strike and increased knee and hip flexion during the swing is
characteristic of
A. Weakness in the gluteus medius and minimus.
B. Weakness in the quadriceps femoris.
C. Weakness in the plantar flexors.
D. Weakness in the dorsiflexor.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following is characteristic of running versus walking?
A. Less vigorous arm action.
B. Decreased stride length.
C. Period of nonsupport.
D. Period of double-support.
70-743 exam 
Answer: C
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QUESTION 49
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that hosts the primary DNS zone for
contoso.com. All client computers are configured to use DC1 as the primary DNS server. You need to configure DC1 to resolve any DNS requests that are not for
the contoso.com zone by querying the DNS server of your Internet Service Provider (ISP).
What should you configure?

A. Name server (NS) records
B. Condition& forwarders
C. Forwarders
D. Naming Authority Pointer (NAPTR) DNS resource records (RR)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to ensure that when users log on to Server1, their user account is added automatically to a local group named Group1 during the login process.
Which Group Policy settings should you modify?

A. Restricted Groups
B. Security Options
C. User Rights Assignment
D. Preferences
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You need to prevent users from installing a Windows Store app named App1.
What should you create?
A. An application control policy executable rule
B. An application control policy packaged app rule
C. A software restriction policy certificate rule
D. An application control policy Windows Installer rule
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 500 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You have a written security policy that states the following:
-Only required ports must be open on the servers.
-All of the servers must have Windows Firewall enabled.

Client computers used by Administrators must be allowed to access all of the ports on all of the servers.


Client computers used by the Administrators must be authenticated before the client computers can access the servers.
You have a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8. You need to ensure that you can use Computer1 to access all of the ports on all of the
servers successfully. The solution must adhere to the security policy.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)

A. On Computer1, create a connection security rule
B. On all of the servers, create an outbound rule and select the Allow the connection if it is a secure option.
C. On all of the servers, create an inbound rule and select the Allow the connection if it is a secure option.
D. On Computer1, create an inbound rule and select the Allow the connection if it is a secure option.
E. On Computer1, create an outbound rule and select the Allow the connection if it is a secure option
F. On all of the servers, create a connection security rule
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 53
Your company’s security policy states that all of the servers deployed to a branch office must not have the graphical user interface (GUI) installed. In a branch
office, a support technician installs a server with a GUI installation of Windows Server 2012 on a new server, and then configures the server as a DHCP server.
You need to ensure that the new server meets the security policy. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?

A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 on the server.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE.
D. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Your network contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. All client computers run Windows 8. Server1 contains a folder named
Folder1. Folder1 contains the installation files for the company’s desktop applications. A network technician shares Folder1 as Share 1. You need to ensure that
the share for Folder1 is not visible when users browse the network.
What should you do?

A. From the properties of Folder1, deny the List Folder Contents permission for the Everyone group.
B. From the properties of Folder1, remove Share1, and then share Folder1 as Share1$.
C. From the properties of Folder1, configure the hidden attribute.
D. From the properties of Share1, configure access-based enumeration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 55
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1). Both servers are member servers. On Server2, you install all of the software required to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely from Server Manager. You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 from Server1 by using the Server Manager. Which two tasks should you perform on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the systempropertiesremote.execommand
B. Run the Enable-PsRemotingcmdlet.
C. Run the Enable-PsSessionConfigurationcmdlet
D. Run the Configure-SMRemoting.ps1script
E. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicycmdlet.
Correct Answer: DE

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QUESTION 1
You need to use Theme settings to customize the Microsoft Dynamics 365 user interface for a customer. Which three actions can you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Export a theme as part of a solution.
B. Adjust accent colors including hover and selection colors.
C. Change the logo and navigation colors.
D. Change icon colors.
E. Provide entity-specific coloring.
MB2-716 exam Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 2
You administer a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment for a company. You need to prevent one specific employee from synchronizing data by using Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook without preventing the employee from using Microsoft Dynamics 365 tor Outlook. What should you do?
A. Set the Web Mail Merge settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
B. Set the Sync to Outlook settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
C. Set the Dynamics 365 Address Book settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
D. Set the Use Dynamics 365 App for Outlook to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are exclusive to managed solutions and not unmanaged solutions? Fach correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. You cannot export the solution.
B. When you remove the solution, all components items included in the solution are removed.
C. You must define entity assets for every entity that you add to the solution.
D. You must select a publisher for the solution
MB2-716 dumps Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which two form areas allow you to read from and write to all visible fields? Each answer presents a complete solution.
A. Header
B. Body
C. Navigation
D. Footer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You create a business rule for the Account entity.
The business rule must run when you import account records. Which two conditions must be true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The scope was set to Account.
B. The scope was set to Entity.
C. A business rule snapshot was successful.
D. A business rule is active.
MB2-716 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
You are creating a set of system views. Which three options can you configure for the views? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. read, write, and delete permissions
B. append, assign, and share permissions
C. default sort order for results
D. the widths of each column
E. the columns to display
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 7
You configure a 1:N relationship between two entities and set the cascade rule for deletion to Referential. What effect does deleting the parent record have on any child records?
A. The child records remain but the link to the parent record is removed.
B. The parent record cannot be deleted until all of the child records are first deleted.
C. The child records are deleted and the link to the parent record shows as deleted.
D. The child records are deleted along with the parent record.
MB2-716 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You implement Microsoft Office 365 groups for a company. You need to ensure that all members of a specific security role can see and use an Office 365 group. Which privilege should you assign to the security role?
A. ISV Extensions
B. Execute Workflow Job
C. Act on behalf of another user
D. Browse Availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You need to provide users that have the Sales manager security role access to multiple business process flows (BPFs). Which two statements regarding role driven BPFs are true?
A. Users can select a default BPF for all records.
B. If a user does not have access to the current process that is applied to a record, options will be disabled.
C. Set Order defines the order in which BPFs are viewed.
D. You must use teams to control which groups of users have access to a BPF.
MB2-716 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
You install a unmanaged solution named SolutionA that has a dependency on another unmanaged solution named SolutionB. What is the outcome when you attempt to uninstall SolutionB?
A. SolutionB and all components that are not dependencies of SolutionA are removed.
B. The system prevents you from deleting SolutionB .
C. SolutionB and all related components are removed.
D. The container for SolutionB is removed, but all its components remain.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You need to install the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook on your device. What should you do?
A. In Settings, open Apps for Dynamics 365.
B. Add your user name to the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook eligible user list.
C. Enable the option to automatically add the app to Outlook.
D. Download and install the app from Microsoft AppSource.
MB2-716 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are designing a managed solution that will be deployed to another part of the business. Users may want to customize specific parts of the solution after the solution is installed. Which capability represents a managed property that users can configure;’
A. the ability to change the display name of a system entity
B. the ability to reassign a system dashboard
C. the ability to rename a web resource
D. the ability to add forms to a custom entity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Your company rents tools and machines to customers. You create a custom entity named Equipment to track the tools and machines. You need to show the hierarchical relationships between various pieces of equipment. How should you configure the relationship?
A. Ensure that you enable Connections for the entity.
B. Set up a parental 1:N relationship between Accounts and Equipment.
C. Create a self-referential relationship and configure hierarchy settings.
D. Set up a N:N relationship between Accounts and Equipment.
MB2-716 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which two entity properties can you disable on a system entity?
A. Access Teams
B. Notes
C. Allow quick create
D. Queues
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
The receptionist for a company needs to quickly capture basic information regarding visitors. You configure several different quick create forms for the Visitor entity. The receptionist reports that only one of the quick create forms displays. Why are the other quick create forms not showing?
A. You did not assign the receptionist access to the form.
B. You did not enable the switch forms control for quick create forms.
C. You can only show one quick create form per entity.
D. You did not assign the correct security role for the quick create from.
MB2-716 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You create a custom entity. Records are created by users through the user interface, and through a backend Integration. You must combine two fields to populate a new field that will replace the name field on the entity. You need to ensure that the new field displays a result immediately after a new record is saved. What should you use?
A. a background workflow
B. JavaScript code on the record form
C. a form-scoped business rule
D. a calculated field
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Your organization has a custom entity that contains 25 records. A specific group of users needs access to the records. You need to ensure that only specified users can access the records and that you can manage access from one place. What should you do?
A. Add the users to access teams. Grant the teams read and write access for each of the custom entity records.
B. Ask the owner of the custom entity records to grant specific users read and write access to the records.
C. Create an owner team that includes the users. Assign the team a new security role which can access only the custom entity.
D. Modify an existing security role that is common to the users. Grant the role access to the custom entity.
MB2-716 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You manage Microsoft Office 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a company. Some Office 365 users do not have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license. You need to ensure that all users can see tasks that are associated with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 opportunity record. What should you implement?
A. Microsoft OneNote integration
B. Microsoft OneDrive integration
C. Microsoft SharePoint integration
D. Microsoft Office 365 groups
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
What is the total number of If-Else conditions that you can add to a business rule?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 15
MB2-716 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 tenant. You plan to implement Microsoft Office 365 Groups. You to need to ensure that all Office 365 Group features are available. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure a Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox for each Microsoft Dynamics 365 user.
B. Enable the ISV Extensions security privilege.
C. Configure Yammer to work with Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. Enable server-based Microsoft SharePoint in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
E. Configure the Microsoft SharePoint List component
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 21
Which component can you add to a solution?
A. Goals
B. Queues
C. Subjects
D. Processes
MB2-716 exam Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A company plans to use Office 365 to provide email services for users.
You need to ensure that a custom domain name is used.
What should you do first?
A. Add the custom domain name to Office 365 and then verify it.
B. Verify the existing domain name.
C. Create an MX record in DNS.
D. Create a CNAME record in DNS.
70-346 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DNS actually tells the Internet where to send email to. Thus you need to make sure that your custom name that you intend using for email is added to Office 365 and verified. When you put the right information into the right DNS records for your domain, the DNS system routes everything correctly so your email, for example, arrives in Office 365 instead of somewhere else.

QUESTION 2
A company has an Office 365 tenant. The company uses a third-party DNS provider that does not allow TXT records. You need to verify domain ownership. What should you do?
A. Create an MX record.
B. Create a CNAME record.
C. Create an A record.
D. Create an SRV record.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Add a TXT or MX record for DNS verification.
References:

QUESTION 3
A company has an Office 365 tenant. You plan to distribute the Office 365 ProPlus client to users.
The client machines do not normally have Internet access.
You need to activate the Office 365 ProPlus installations and ensure that the licenses remain active.
What should you do?
A. Connect the client computer to the Internet once to activate the Office 365 ProPlus client, and once every 90days after that.
B. Connect the client computer to the Internet once to activate the Office 365 ProPlus client, and once every 30 days after that.
C. Connect the client computer to the Internet only once to activate the Office 365 ProPlus client.
D. Connect the client computer to the Internet once to activate the Office 365 ProPlus client, and once every 180 days after that.
E. Connect the client computer to the Internet once to activate the Office 365 ProPlus client, and once every 365 days after that.
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
After you’ve verified the user is assigned a license, you should check that Office 365 ProPlus is activated. Activation usually occurs during initial installation. The computer has to connect to the Internet at least once every 30 days for Office
365 ProPlus to remain activated.
References:

QUESTION 4
You have an Exchange Online tenant.
You must identify mailboxes that are no longer in use.
You need to locate the inactive mailboxes.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-StaleMailboxReport -Expression
B. Get-StaleMailboxReport -Organization
C. Get-MailboxActivityReport -Organization
D. Get-StaleMailboxReport -EndDate
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Use the Get-StaleMailboxReport cmdlet to view the number of mailboxes that haven’t been accessed for at least 30 days.
The EndDate parameter specifies the end date of the date range.

QUESTION 5
Contoso, Ltd. has an Office 365 tenant. You configure Azure Active Directory Synchronization for the environment. You need to identify user objects that will be included from the directory search by using the IDFix tool. Which account will NOT be marked as a problem account by IDFix?
A. [email protected]
B. [email protected]
C. [email protected]
D. [email protected]
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 6
You have an on-premises Exchange organization. The organization plans to migrate to Office 365.
You need to identify a group of users to designate as the pilot group.
Which factor makes a user a poor choice to be included in the pilot group?
A. users who use Android devices
B. users who are delegates for multiple mailboxes
C. users who need access to public folders on Exchange 2007 servers
D. users who receive fewer than 25 email messages per day
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Users who have a dependency on resources that are still on-premises are not considered good candidates a pilot as they require send-as and receive as permissions on those resources.

QUESTION 7
You have a legacy application that needs to send email to employees.
The legacy application runs on a client computer that must send email by using SMTP through Exchange Online.
You need to identify the correct host name and port information.
Which settings should you use?
A. Outlook.office365.com and port 25
B. Outlook.office365.com and port 587
C. Smtp.office365.com and port 587
D. Smtp.office365.com and port 25
70-346 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The legacy applications would use port 25 for smtp. The host name should be Smtp.office365.com.

QUESTION 8
You are the Office 365 administrator for a company. You plan to implement rights management.
You need to activate Microsoft Azure Rights Management.
What should you use?
A. the Windows PowerShell Enable-AadrmSuperUserFeature cmdlet
B. the Office 365 Admin Center portal
C. the Windows PowerShell Set-OrganizationConfig cmdlet
D. the Microsoft Exchange Online Admin Center
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Once you have signed up for an Office 365 plan that includes Rights Management, sign in to Office 365 with a work or school account that has the global administrator role for your Office 365 deployment. You should then navigate to the rights management page via Settings > Services & add-ins > Microsoft Azure Information Protection > Manage Microsoft Azure Information Protection settings. On the rights management page, click activate.

QUESTION 9
Your company uses Office 365.
You need to retrieve a list of all the mail-enabled objects in Office 365.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you use?
A. Get-MSOLUser
B. Get-MSOLContact
C. Get-RoleGroupMember
D. Get-Group
E. Get-Recipient
F. Get-LogonStatistics
G. Get-MailContact
H. Get-RemovedMailbox
I. Get-Mailbox
J. Get-ManagementRoleAssignment
K. Get-MailboxStatistics
L. Get-User
70-346 exam Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains a single Active Directory forest. The forest contains a domain controller and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) servers that are deployed to virtual machines. The virtual machines run either on-premises or on Microsoft Azure. You have Azure AD Connect deployed on-premises. The Azure AD Connect database is installed on an on-premises instance of Microsoft SQL Server 2014. Last month, an Azure AD Connect server experienced a hardware failure that caused an Azure AD Connect server to go offline for several days. You need to recommend a solution to reduce the outage window when hardware failure occurs on the Azure AD Connect server. Solution: You deploy a new on-premises Azure AD Connect server that uses the same SQL Server instance. You start Azure AD Connect sync. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
An on-premises Azure AD Connect server already exists. A server in staging mode is required to provide High Availability.

QUESTION 11
You deploy Office 365. You must implement Microsoft Skype for Business Online for all users. including audio and video for all desktop clients. All company desktop machines reside behind a company firewall. You need configure the firewall to allow clients to use Skype for Business Online. Which three outbound ports or port ranges should you open? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. TCP 80
B. TCP 5061
C. UDP 3478
D. TCP 443
E. TCP and UDP 50000-59999
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: CDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 12
Your company uses Microsoft SharePoint Online for collaboration. A document library is configured as shown in the following table.
70-346 dumps
You need to enable the coauthoring of documents in the library. What should you do?
A. Change the Who should see draft items in this document library? setting to Any user who can read items.
B. Change the Create a version each time you edit a file in this document library? setting to No Versioning.
C. Change the Require documents to be checked out before they can be edited? setting to No.
D. Change the Require content approval for submitted items? setting to No.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From TechNet Article “Overview of co-authoring in SharePoint 2013” Check out When a user checks out a document for editing, the document is locked for editing by that user. This prevents co-authoring. Do not enable the Require Check
Out feature in document libraries in which co- authoring will be used. By default, Require Check Out is not enabled in SharePoint 2013. Users should not check out documents manually when co-authoring is being used.

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QUESTION 1
Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. You need to verify whether free/busy information sharing with external users is configured. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you use?
A. Test-OutlookConnectivity
B. Test-FederationTrust
C. Get-OrganizationRelationship
D. Get-MSOLDomainFederationSettings
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Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
A company has an Office 365 tenant that has an Enterprise E1 subscription. Users currently sign in with credentials that include the contoso.com domain suffix. The company is acquired by Fabrikam. Users must now sign in with credentials that include the fabrikam.com domain suffix. You need to ensure that all users sign in with the new domain name. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MsolUser
B. Redo-MsolProvisionUser
C. Set-MsolUserLicense
D. Set-MsolUserPrincipalName
E. Convert-MsolFederatedUser
F. Set-MailUser
G. Set-LinkedUser
H. New-MsolUser
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use Azure AD Connect. Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory. You need to synchronize the remaining users. Which three actions should you perform to ensure users excluded from migration are not synchornized? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false
B. Perform a full synchronization.
C. Populate an attribute for each user account.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
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Correct Answer: BCD
Question No :4 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has a single office. You have the following requirements: You must configure a redundant Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) implementation. You must use a Windows Internal Database to store AD FS configuration data. The solution must use a custom login page for external users. The solution must use single sign-on for internal users. You need to deploy the minimum number of servers.
How many servers should you deploy?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 16
Answer: B
Question No : 5 DRAG DROP
A company has a Windows Server 2008 domain controller and a SharePoint 2007 farm. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008. You must provide single sign-on for Office 365 SharePoint sites from the company’s network. You need to install the required software. What should you install? To answer, drag the appropriate action to the correct location. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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QUESTION: 6
and are two examples of organizations that operate in projectized structure environment.
A. Small accounting firms and construction organizations
B. Large accounting firms and assembly organizations
C. Large Procurement firms and production organizations
D. Large accounting firms and construction organizations
70-346 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 7
A project manager is assigned to a project, either full -time or part-time, depending on the size of the project, and then must negotiate for the services of individual team members with each appropriate functional manager in:

A. Functional Organization
B. Matrix Organization
C. Project Organization
D. Control Organization
Answer: B
QUESTION: 8
The adaptation which responds to the needs of the organization by using a combination of functional, matrix and projectized structures is known as:
A. Organic structure
B. Inorganic structure
C. Crude structure
D. Natural structure
70-346 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 9
A macro-level evaluation of an organization’s internal and external forces is called:
A. Paradox analysis
B. Functional analysis
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION: 10
A set of systematic procedures to apply critical thinking to information, data and experience for the purpose of solving problems, making decisions, anticipating future problems and appraising situations is known as:
A. Rational process analysis
B. Lucidity analysis

C. Coherent analysis
D. Prioritization matrix analysis
70-346 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 11
The team begins by identifying a problem and then describing it, which is known as:
A. Digression statement
B. Feasibility statement
C. Deviation statement
D. Explanatory progress
Answer: C
QUESTION: 12
A chart that captures all the possible causes of a problem in a format designed to show their relationships to the problem and to each other is known as:
A. Integration progress chart
B. Fishbone diagram
C. Performance-biased diagram
D. Root cause chart
70-346 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION:
13
A process of determining the small minority of a population that accounts for the majority of given effect is called:
A. Pareto analysis
B. Statistical analysis
C. Population analysis
D. None of the above

Answer: A
QUESTION: 14
A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service is called:
A. Project
B. Build
C. Enterprise
D. Development
70-346 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 15
The process of coordinating the organization, planning, scheduling, controlling, monitoring and evaluating of activities so that the objectives of a project are met is known as:
A. Project Life cycle
B. Project Executive
C. Project Management
D. Project Organization
Answer: C
QUESTION: 16
According to Project Management Institute, which of the following is NOT the process group
of project?
A. Initiating
B. Organizing
C. Executing
D. Closing
70-346 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 17
Contract statement of work is the output of which process group?

A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Monitoring
D. Closing
Answer: A
QUESTION: 18
Organizations less familiar with the discipline of project management usually begin by creating task forces or committees within each role to tackle problem, known as:
A. Procurement Management
B. Functional structure
C. Procedural structure
D. Performance Management
70-346 exam 
Answer: B
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Exam Code: 70-697
Exam Name: Configuring Windows Devices
Q&As: 186

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QUESTION 10
You are configuring two Windows 10 Enterprise client computers: A desktop computer named Computer1 and a portable computer named COMPUTER2.
You have the following requirements:
Store all personal data in a folder named data on Computer1. ?Ensure that you can access all personal data from Computer2, even when a network connection is unavailable. Synchronize personal data between the computers twice a day. You need to configure the computers to meet the requirements. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. From COMPUTER2, connect to Computer1 and configure the Data folder to always be available offline.
B. From Computer1, connect to COMPUTER2 and configure the Data folder to always be available offline.
C. ln Sync Center, configure a schedule for offline files.
D. From COMPUTER2, map a network drive to the DATA folder on Computer1.
E. ln Sync Center, set up a new sync partnership.
70-697 exam Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 11
Your company has a standard power scheme for the sales team. You are replacing a laptop for a sale associate. You import the power scheme onto the new laptop. You need to App1y the power scheme.What should you do?
A. Modify the power scheme under Power and Sleep settings.
B. Run the gpupdate /F command.
C. Run the powercfg /S command.
D. Modify the advanced power settings.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are setting up a Windows 10 Enterprise computer. The computer’s network connections are shown in the Network connections exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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70-697 dumps

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
70-697 dumps NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

70-697 dumps

70-697 dumps

QUESTION 13
You have a desktop computer and a tablet that both run Windows 10 Enterprise. The desktop computer is located at your workplace and is a member of an Active Directory domain. The network contains an App1ication Virtualization (App-V) infrastructure. Several App-V App1ications are deployed to all desktop computers. The tablet is located at your home and is a member of a workgroup. Both locations have lnternet connectivity. You need to be able to access all App1ications that run on the desktop computer from you tablet. Which actions should you perform on each computer? To answer, drag the appropriate action to the correct computer. Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the SP1it bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 14
HOTSPOT
You have a computer that runs Windows 10 Enterprise that has a local group policy as shown in the following graphic.

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QUESTION 15
HOTSPOT
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a server that runs Windows Server 20l2 R2 and that is a Remote Desktop server The RD Web Access Web App1ication settings are shown in the following graphic.

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\Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

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Correct Answer:

70-697 dumps

Question: 16
Your organization is aiming to reduce costs by stopping wastes in the production cycle. The company has created a plan that will reward employees 50 percent of the savings from the waste stoppage. What type of compensation plan is your organization offering to employees in this instance?
A. This is an example of a team incentive
B. This is an example of profit sharing
C. This is an example of gainsharing
D. This is an example of a short-term incentive
70-697 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
Gainsharing is a compensation plan where the money saved by reducing waste is shared among the employees or project team. It can also be used as an incentive for additional revenues generated. Answer option D is incorrect. A short-term incentive usually last a year or less and the scenario doesn’t indicate how long this incentive may be offered. Answer option A is incorrect. A team incentive is for a particular team to reach a common goal. This choice is tempting but gainsharing is a more accurate description of what’s occurring in this scenario. Answer option B is incorrect. Profit sharing is similar to gainsharing, but the focus is one a profit goal, not a waste reduction goal.
Question: 17
What is the compa-ratio for an employee that earns $75,000 per year, but the midpoint for the role is $85,000 per year?
A. $10,000 difference
B. 1:88
C. 113 percent
D. 88 percent
Answer: D
Explanation:
The compa-ratio helps organizations determine how closely an employee’s pay is in synch with market. You must also consider the length of employment, service, skills, and other factors in the decision for compensation. The ratio is found by dividing the employees’ salary ($75,000) by the midpoint for the role ($80,000) for the ratio of 88 percent. Answer option C is incorrect. 113 percent is the inverted formula by dividing $80,000 by $75,000. Answer option A is incorrect. $10,000 is the difference of the two values, but this isn’t the compa ratio. Answer option B is incorrect. This isn’t a valid figure for the question.
Question: 18
As a HR Professional you must understand the laws and regulations, which affect employee compensation. If a non-exempt employee works more than 40 hours per week, what is their overtime pay rate?
A. 150 percent of their base pay
B. It depends on the state where the employee is employed
C. Non-exempt employees do not receive overtime pay
D. 50 percent of their base pay
70-697 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
Overtime pay is 150 percent of the employee’s base hourly pay. It is commonly called time and a half. Answer option B is incorrect. Overtime pay is a federally-mandated law, not a state law. Answer option C is incorrect. Non-exempt employees do receive overtime pay. Exempt employees do not. Answer option D is incorrect. Overtime pay is 150 percent, not just 50 percent of the base pay.

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Exam Code: 70-398
Exam Name: Planning for and Managing Devices in the Enterprise
Q&As: 36

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Question: 16. An administrator planning a new NetBackup installation has 10,000 tapes in a single
library and 27 tape pools.
Which NetBackup feature allows automatic assignment of free tapes to any of the 27
pools when the pool runs out of tapes?
A. enabling a scratch pool
B. setting up bar code rules for each pool
C. turning on Media Multiplexing for each pool
D. enabling auto-assign media in the Universal Attributes tab
70-398 exam Answer: A
Question: 17.Which two commands allow management of storage units through the command
line?(Choose two.)
A. bpstuadd
B. bpstulist
C. bpsturemove
D. bpstudelete
Answer: A, B

Question: 18.Which NetBackup command do you use to help verify NetBackup client
configuration and network connectivity?
A. Bpclntcmd -ip
B. Bpclntcmd -hn
C. Bpclntcmd -pn
D. Bpclntcmd -listall
70-398 dump Answer: C
Question: 19.The VERITAS device drivers have been installed on a Microsoft Windows server.
What must be done before configuring any devices?
A. run vmquery
B. run bpconfig
C. reboot the computer
D. restart NetBackup services
Answer: C
Question: 20. A disk-based storage unit must be created for use in a small number of backup
policies. Which action is taken to ensure that this storage unit is used only by the intended
policies?
A. enable the “On demand only” option for the disk storage unit and target this specific
storage unit in each of the intended backup policies.
B. configure the disk storage unit as the destination storage unit in each of the intended
backup policies
C. add only the intended policies to the “Authorized Policies” tab of the storage unit
D. add the disk storage unit to a unique “Storage Unit Group” and target this specific
storage unit group in each of the intended backup policies
70-398 pdf Answer: A

Question: 21
As an HR Professional, you must be familiar with certain theories and insights about organizational
culture, organizational development, and management. Who addressed organizational culture as
“that’s the way we do things around here”?
A. Frederick Herzberg
B. Allen A. Kennedy
C. Edgard Schein
D. W. Edwards Deming
Answer: C
Explanation:
Edgard Schein of MIT’s Sloan School of Management is the individual who defined organizational
culture as “that’s the way we do things around here.” Answer option A is incorrect. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation describes the elements that motivate performance in an individual. Answer option D is incorrect. Deming is a leader in quality management but didn’t address organizational culture, directly. Answer option B is incorrect. Kennedy is a part of the team Deal and Kennedy who described the four dimensions of organizational culture.
Question: 22
As an HR Professional you need to be familiar with the Age Discrimination in Employment Act 1967.
What is the maximum age this act applies to people?
A. There is no age limit in the act
B. 65
C. 70
D. 75
70-398 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
The Age Discrimination in Employment Act 1967 has no age limit on the employees or job applicants.
Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act 1967 has no
age limit on the employees or job applicants.

Question: 23
You are the HR Professional for your organization and you’re working with the management to
define the role of contractors versus employees in your organization. According to the Internal
Revenue Service, there are three categories of control that help determine whether a person is a
contractor or an employee. Which one of the following is not one of the three levels of control as
defined by the IRS for employee versus contractor?
A. Financial control
B. Locale of work performed
C. Behavioral control
D. Type of relationship
Answer: B
Explanation:
The locale of the work performed is not one of the three levels of control as defined by the IRS. The
three levels are: Behavioral control, financial control, and the type of relationship.
Answer option C is incorrect. Behavioral control defines who does the work, who controls the work,
who directs the work, and how each action is done. Organizations train employees to perform
services in a particular manner, while independent contractors determine their own methods.
Answer option A is incorrect. Financial control defines whether the business has a right to control
the financial business aspects of the worker’s job. The business aspects are as follows:
The extent to which the worker makes services available to the relevant market versus a single
business
How the worker is paid
The extent to which the business expenses are not reimbursed
The extent of investment made by the worker in the business
Answer option D is incorrect. The type of relationship should be defined in the written contract,
assuming one exists, between the person and the organization.
Question: 24
As an HR Professional you should be familiar with OSHA forms for maintaining employee records.
OSHA form 301 is used to document the incident that caused the work-related injury or illness. How
long is an organization required to keep the form on record?
A. One year from the date of the incident
B. Five years following the year of the incident
C. Three years following the year of the incident
D. 90 days following the year of the incident
70-398 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
OSHA Form 301 is an injury and illness incident report that employers are required to keep on file for
five years following the year of the injury.
Answer option A is incorrect. Employers are obligated to keep the form on file for five years
following the year of the injury.
Answer option D is incorrect. Employers are obligated to keep the form on file for five years
following the year of the injury.
Answer option C is incorrect. Employers are obligated to keep the form on file for five years
following the year of the injury.
Question: 25
Which one of the following best describes Progressive discipline?
A. Discussion of substandard performance, written warning, final written warning, termination.
B. Series of documents of employee’s incompetence or insubordination that precedes an employee’s
termination.
C. Discussion of substandard performance, verbal warning, written warning, and final written
warning.
D. Series of documents of employee’s substandard performance prior to each step of discipline or
termination.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Progressive discipline usually follows a series of steps of discipline, where each step is slightly more
serious than the previous step. The most common steps are: Discussion of substandard
performance, verbal warning, written warning, and final written warning.
Answer options A, D, and B are incorrect. These are’nt valid descriptions of progressive discipline.
Question: 26
Henry is the HR Professional for his organization and he’s discussing the status of Amy’s
employment. Amy earns $87,500 per year and receives a paycheck via direct deposit every two
weeks. Amy was hired under the offer of a salary position, but she feels that she is working far more
than the agreed 40 hours per week. Based on these scenarios, do you believe Amy is exempt or non
exempt?
A. Amy is exempt because she is paid on a salary basis.
B. Amy is not exempt because she is working more than ten percent of her total agreed hours per
week.
C. Amy is exempt because she earns more than $1,000 per week.
D. Amy is not exempt because she is offered bonuses as part of her pay.
70-398 dump Answer: A
Explanation:
An exempt employee is someone who is paid on a salary basis and earns more than $455 per week.
As the question states, Amy was hired under the offer of a salary.
Answer option C is incorrect. While Amy does earn more than $1,000 per week, this doesn’t
automatically qualify her as exempt.
Answer option D is incorrect. Bonuses do not automatically qualify someone as non-exempt.
Answer option B is incorrect. The question doesn’t tell how much additional hours Amy is actually
working so this isn’t a good choice. The amount of hours a person works doesn’t directly affect their
exempt or non-exempt status.

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Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Sep 13, 2017
Q&As: 424

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QUESTION 4.How many NAS heads can an Isilon cluster support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. None. Isilon cluster do not use NAS heads.
70-412 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION 5.Legacy LDAP does not allow what action on passwords.?
A. Encryption of passwords
B. Unencrypted passwords
C. Transfer of passwords to windows clients
D. Reading of passwords by windows clients
Answer: A
QUESTION 6.How many Accelerator nodes are recommended per NL node in a cluster?
A. 4 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 3 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
B. 3 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 3 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
C. 5 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 3 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
D. 4 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 4 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
E. 3 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 4 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
70-412 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION 7.Select the standard ACL policies options? (Choose 4)
A. SMB only
B. UNIX only
C. Balanced
D. NFS only
E. Windows Only
F. Manual Configuration
Answer: B,C,E,F
QUESTION 8.When a file is saved to an Isilon cluster, which node creates the data and parity stripes?
A. The stripes are assigned to two separate nodes for calculation.
B. The node connected to the client.
C. The node with the least amount of read / write activity.
D. All nodes use Round Robin to take turns calculating the stripes.
70-412 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION 9.Which of the following is the Active Directory domain identifier used by an Isilon cluster when allocating
SIDs?
A. I-1-144-1
B. I-1-20-2
C. S-1-22-1
D. S-1-20-2

Answer: C
QUESTION 10.A customer would like a new Isilon cluster. There are two requirements, which are long term storage for
data files and video files that need to be edited. What two node types best serve these needs? (Choose 2)
A. S200
B. S400
C. X400
D. NL400
70-412 vce 
Answer: A,D
QUESTION 11.A customer needs to prevent accidental deletion or alteration of critical or archived data. They have used
a WORM storage setup in the past, but are not required to be WORM compliant. What Isilon license would
enable them to have this type of feature?
A. SmartConnect
B. SmartLock
C. SmartSecure
D. SmartCache
Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Your network contains a perimeter 70-412 exam network and an internal network. The internal network con- tains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.1 infrastructure. The infrastructure uses Active Directory as
the attribute store. You plan to deploy a federation server proxy to a server named Server2 in the perimeter net- work.
You need to identify which value must be included in the certificate that is deployed to Server2.
What should you identify?
A. The FQDN of the AD FS server
B. The name of the Federation Service
C. The name of the Active Directory domain
D. The public IP address of Server2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To add a host (A) record to corporate DNS for a federation server On a DNS server for the corporate
network, open the DNS snap-in.
1. In the console tree, right-click the applicable forward lookup zone, and then click New Host (A).

2. In Name, type only the computer name of the federation server or federation server cluster (for example,
type fs for the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) fs.adatum.com).
3. In IP address, type the IP address for the federation server or federation server cluster (for ex- ample,
192.168.1.4).
4. Click Add Host.
Reference: Add a host (A) record to corporate DNS for a federation server
QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two child
domains named east.contoso.com and west.contoso.com. You install an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster in each child domain. You discover that all of the users in the contoso.com forest are directed to the AD RMS cluster in east.contoso.com. You need to ensure that the users in west.contoso.com are directed to the AD RMS cluster 70-412 dumps  in west.contoso.com and that the users in east.contoso.com are directed to the AD RMS cluster in east.contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Service Connection Point (SCP).
B. Configure the Group Policy object (GPO) settings of the users in the west.contoso.com do- main.
C. Configure the Group Policy object (GPO) settings of the users in the east.contoso.com do- main.
D. Modify the properties of the AD RMS cluster in west.contoso.com.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The west.contoso.com are the ones in trouble that need to be redirected to the west.contoso.com not the
east.contoso.com.
Note: It is recommended that you use GPO to deploy AD RMS client settings and that you only deploy
settings as needed.
Reference: AD RMS Best Practices Guide
QUESTION 14
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
From Server Manager, you install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server1.
A domain administrator named Admin1 logs on to Server1.
When Admin1 runs the Certification Authority console, Admin1 receive the following error message.

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You need to ensure that when Admin1 opens the Certification Authority console on Server1, the error
message does not appear.
What should you do?
A. Install the Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) tools.
B. Run the regsvr32.exe command.
C. Modify the PATH system variable.
D. Configure the Active Directory Certificate Services server role from Server Manager.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The error message is related to missing role configuration.
* Cannot Manage Active Directory Certificate Services
Resolution: configure the two Certification Authority and Certification Authority Web Enroll- ment Roles:

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Reference: Cannot manage Active Directory Certificate Services in Server 2012 Error 0x800070002
QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A previous administrator implemented a Proof of Concept installation of Active Directory Rights
Management Services (AD RMS). 
After the proof of concept was complete, the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role was removed. You attempt to deploy AD RMS. During the configuration of AD RMS, you receive an error message indicating that an existing AD RMS Service Connection Point (SCP) was found. You need to remove the existing AD RMS SCP.
Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Users and Computers
B. Authorization Manager
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
E: Active Directory Rights Management Services
70-412 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ADRMS will registered the Service Connection Point (SCP) in Active Directory and you will need to
unregister first before you remove the ADRMS server role If your ADRMS server is still alive, you can
easily manually remove the SCP by below:

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70-412 dumps

Reference: How to manually remove or reinstall ADRMS
QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member
server named Server1 that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role in- stalled. All servers
run Windows Server 2012.d
You complete the Active Directory Federation Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
You need to ensure that client devices on the internal network can use Workplace Join.
Which two actions should you perform on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the so- lution.
Choose two.)
A. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration -PrepareActiveDirectory.
B. Edit the multi-factor authentication global authentication policy settings.
C. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration.
D. Run Set-AdfsProxyProperties HttpPort 80.
E. Edit the primary authentication global authentication policy settings.
70-412 vce 
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C: To enable Device Registration Service
On your federation server, open a Windows PowerShell command window and type:
Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration

Repeat this step on each federation farm node in your AD FS farm..
E: Enable seamless second factor authentication
Seamless second factor authentication is an enhancement in AD FS that provides an added 70-412 dumps level of
access protection to corporate resources and applications from external devices that are trying to access
them. When a personal device is Workplace Joined, it becomes a `known’ device and administrators can
use this information to drive conditional access and gate access to resources. To enable seamless second
factor authentication, persistent single sign-on (SSO) and conditional access for Workplace Joined devices
In the AD FS Management console, navigate to Authentication Policies. Select Edit Global Pri- mary
Authentication. Select the check box next to Enable Device Authentication, and then click OK.

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