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The truth about Cisco CCNA | One training course, one exam

Cisco CCNA

What is the truth about Cisco CCNA?

What is the meaning of training?

What does an exam mean?

I believe friends who are interested in Cisco CCNA certification, see this, all have this doubt. Don’t worry, my purpose in writing this blog is to answer questions!

First of all, the reason for obtaining CCNA certification

No matter who it is, there is always a reason to do one thing. The Cisco CCNA certification is no exception. It is the first step in preparing for your Cisco IT technical career. It is very important to look at it this way. Cisco CCNA certification has developed to the mature stage of standardization, and it is imminent to obtain certification.

In short, CCNA is related to Internet infrastructure. We need to rely on them to connect our lives, especially in the current situation during the new crown pneumonia pandemic, they all rely on invisible Internet infrastructure.

CCNA has been changing people’s lives and shaping the network. The network needs you, you need Cisco CCNA.

Second, let’s talk about: One training course, one exam

Whether you are an individual or an organization, Cisco learning training is a powerful way for you to obtain Cisco certification. But are the numerous training institutions on the market dazzling you? How to choose? Become the key to your successful CCNA certification! You should choose the best IT learning material provider.

Here are some experiences sharing on the selection

  1. Research training
    It is recommended that you be very cautious and selective when choosing your training, evaluate its strengths and weaknesses, and rely on training that can provide a practical method.
  2. Believe in the power of the brand
    After years of practice, the brand has developed rapidly and is becoming mature. Will bring you a guarantee for exam certification! (At this point, someone must ask me which brand I recommend. Okay, let me talk about it. Based on my personal feelings, I recommend Pass4itSure. Of course, this is for reference only, and the choice is yours. Put in 2 or 3 months to study the materials, and then pass the exam, and then you will be certified.)
  3. Focus on practical functions
    Gaining proficiency in the exam is very valuable. In response to your weaknesses, through relevant training, your knowledge base can be further improved.

Cisco CCNA Certification exam

Updated CCNA – Equally great certificate, new simplified procedure

(This sentence is quoted by Joanna Gardner.)

I particularly agree with some of her views. I also want to give a special cry to the women who read this article. For a long time, network infrastructure has always been a man’s world. I want to say that Cisco CCNA does not discriminate between men and women, and you can do it too, female friends.

Cisco CCNA exam I don’t want to describe too many details! You can learn about these on the official channel, what I want to say is those that the official cannot detect.

The new CCNA certification is Integration of previous different types of Cisco certified network assistants with common CCNA certifications.

Personality characteristics of Cisco CCNA

I have summarized the personality characteristics of Cisco CCNA, which may be inaccurate, just my personal feelings:

  • Persistent enough
  • Very focused
  • Resourceful
  • Super attention to detail

So can you do this? Do you insist? Focus? Resourceful? Pay attention to details? Do you like solving puzzles? Let you start with Cisco CCNA.

Most Popular Cisco CCNA Exam

There are many CCNA Exams, so I won’t list them all here. I just picked some of the most popular ones.

200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate

knowledge and skills:

  • Network fundamentals
  • Network access
  • IP connectivity
  • IP services
  • Security fundamentals
  • Automation and programmability

You must answer the question within 120 minutes. Of course, you can find these on the official website, I will only mention them briefly.

Finally, prepare for action ( free share learning materials)

In order to pass the Cisco CCNA certification in the shortest time, you can read some useful latest exam questions and answers here.

Only when you devote yourself to exam preparation, you can get Cisco CCNA certification. Invest as much time as possible!

latest Cisco 200-301 exam questions for free

QUESTION 1

200-301 exam questions-q1

Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
A. 0
B. 110
C. 38443
D. 3184439
Correct Answer: C
Both the line “O 172.16.0.128/25” and “S 172.16.0.0/24” cover the host 172.16.0.202 but with the “longest (prefix)
match” rule the router will choose the first route.


QUESTION 2
When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?
A. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the
lowest bandwidth.
B. It counts the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the route with the lowest
metric.
C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the exiting interface to calculate the route
with the lowest cost.
D. It multiples the active K values by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router?
A. show ipv6 interface
B. show access-list
C. show ipv6 access-list
D. show ipv6 route
Correct Answer: C

……

More 200-301 ccna practice test. Be prepared for the challenge, practice a lot, trust me, you will be certified. 

Good day! I am very happy to share my experience with you. I really hope to receive such a reply-your article is very interesting!

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210-250 dumps
Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-250 Dumps Exam Q&As:
1. When configuration changes are being made to a domain by an administrative user after acquiring a lock, which of the following statement is true?
A.The lock expires in 30 minutes by default after which the changes are rolled back
B.The lock can be acquired by another other administrative user in which case the changes currently pending will be rolled back
C.The lock can be acquired by another other user of the administrative category in which case the changes currently not committed will be inherited by the user who acquired the lock
D.The lock cannot be acquired by others which an administrative user is holding the lock.
210-250 exam ANSWER: C
2. If there is problem with one of the transactions started by an EJB application, which one of the following would be a starting point for troubleshooting this scenario?
A.Use a text editor to view the transaction log file for information about the failed transaction.
B.Use WebLogic Server log file for the respective server to gain more information about the failed transaction.
C.Use Smart Update GUI to update the failed transaction and commit it.
D.Use the HTTP log file for the respective sever to gain more information about the failed transaction.
ANSWER: B
3. Poison message in JMS occurs when:
A.a JMS Message was sent to wrong queue with AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE option set
B.a standalone receiver with client acknowledgment, does NOT call session.acknowledgement()
C.a javax.jms.JMSSecurityException was thrown while sending a message to a queue/topic
D.a MDB with option set to Auto-acknowledge receives a message
210-250 dump ANSWER: B
4. When diagnosing a native out of memory issue with one of the managed servers in a cluster, which of the following recommendations will not be useful in collecting appropriate information?
A.Use ‘-verbosegc’ JVM arugment to collect heap usage information.
B.Record the process virtual memory size periodically using OS tools.
C.Check whether your application uses some JNI code or third party native modules.
D.All of the above
E.None of the above
ANSWER: D
5. Which two of the following statements are true about developing a Java web service? (Choose two)
A.Must have a private constructor
B.Must include at a minimum, a @WebService JWS annotation
C.May reference a service endpoint interface
D.All of the above
210-250 pdf ANSWER: BC

6. Users are reporting that they cannot access an application on the server using virtual host names. To debug this issue; the traffic received by each virtual host can be viewed by
A.Configuring and enabling Domain Log Filters

B.Configuring audit logs for logging HTTP requests
C.Enabling HTTP access log for each virtual host
D.Configuring and assigning network channels for each user
ANSWER: C
7. Smart Update is used for
A.updating an existing version of application with a new version in production
B.installing maintenance patches and service packs for WebLogic Server
C.updating the DTD based deployment descriptor(s) of a J2EE Application or Module to schema based deployment descriptor(s)
D.updating the JDBC driver used by DataSources in a JDBC System Module automatically
210-250 vce ANSWER: B
8. When using WLDF to perform diagnostics tasks with WebLogic Server 9.x, which one of the following is true?
A.WLDF configuration can only be done on the server-level
B.WLDF configuration can only be done on the application-level
C.WLDF configuration can be done both on the server-level and on the application-level
D.WLDF configuration can only be done on the domain-level
ANSWER: C
9. Which of the following version of Node Manager runs with a larger footprint when compared with the others?
A.Java Version with SSL
B.Java Version without SSL (plain)
C.RSH Version
D.SSH Version
210-250 exam ANSWER: A
10. What is the order in which the upgrade should be run when upgrading to 9.x?
A.Security providers, node manager, managed server
B.Node manager, security providers, managed server
C.Managed server, security providers, node manager
D.Security providers, managed server, node manager
ANSWER: A
11. Scenario: Consider a production server deployment wherein the development team has no access to the production servers. The Administrative team owns the responsibility of deployments, upgrades and supporting the applications hosted on these servers. The decision was for a development and administrative team to use off-line and online WLST scripts to deploy and support the application.
A.During debugging, if there is a need for the development team to review and recreate a similar server 
configuration, which one of the following approaches would you adopt
B.Create a WLST off-line script using duplicateDomain and send it to the development team to recreate the server configuration
C.Send all servers configuration files and have them recreate the server configuration using WLST parse scripts
D.Create a WebLogic Server domain template using WLST and send it to the development team to recreate the configuration
E.Use the WebLogic admin console to save the domain configuration and send it to the development team
210-250 dump ANSWER: C
12. You are not sure whether the configuration change you have just made in the WebLogic Server Console requires the Managed Servers to be restarted. What should you do?
A.Look for details in the restart-servers.xml in the pending directory
B. View the Restart Checklist portlet in the console
C. It is not possible to tell, so you should restart them anyway
D. Examine the domain restart log for a list of the servers that need restarting
ANSWER: B
13. You have started the administration server for your domain and start to configure some additional Managed Servers. When using the WebLogic Server Console to add or change domain configuration attributes, such as adding new servers, the new settings are
A.Written immediately to config.xml
B. Saved as a list of changes in a pending file
C. Saved as a pending version of config.xml D.
Saved in the default (file) persistent store
210-250 pdf ANSWER: C
14. What tool would be the best choice for deploying applications interactively when you do not know the exact names of target servers?
A.weblogic.Deployer
B.Administration Console
C.WLST
D.Using wldeploy Ant task
ANSWER: B
15. Which of the following is the correct process to initiate a configuration change using the Administration Console?
A.Obtain a lock on the current configuration, use JMX APIs to make changes to the configuration, and then click the Save button
B. Update the edit.lok file; edit the config.xml file or the underlying subsystem xml files in the domain and restart the server
C. Obtain a lock on the current configuration, make changes, and then click the Save button
D. Update the edit.lok file, use WLST to make changes, and then restart the server

210-250 vce ANSWER: C
16. When updating a domain configuration using WLST in order to add additional resources and you have connected to the administration server using the administrative user weblogic. You are unaware that your colleague also has some changes to make and is trying to log in to the WebLogic Server Console as the user weblogic too. By default, what will happen when your colleague attempts to log in?
A.The login request is rejected because weblogic is already logged in
B. The colleague logs in, but must wait for you to release the configuration lock
C. The colleague logs in and discovers that he or she already has the lock, sharing it with you
D. The colleague logs in and is given the option to take the lock from you
ANSWER: C
17. WLST life cycle commands are used to manage the life cycle of a server instance and its services. If the requirement is to use the Migrate command, which one of the following is INCORRECT?
A.The Migrate command can only be used to migrate a JMS server to another server within a cluster
B.For JTA migration, the source server has to be down for the Migrate command to succeed
C.For JMS Service, migration to another server can happen only on a running server
D.The migration type server option can be used to migrate all services for a particular server
210-250 exam ANSWER: C
18. During an upgrade process, which one of the following is NOT converted to 9.x by the upgrade wizard?
A.User scripts
B.User file store persisted data
C.User tlog
D.User in-flight transactions
ANSWER: A
19. What are the three different types of watches provided by the WebLogic 9.x Diagnostic Framework?
A.MBean, Harvester, Log
B.Harvester, Log, Instrumentation
C.Alarm, Notification, Log
D.Severity, Alarm, Harvester
210-250 dump ANSWER: B
20. Which of the following is NOT a state for a WebLogic Server instance?
A.RUNNING
B.STANDBY
C.PENDING
D.ADMIN
ANSWER: C

21. Consider the code below:
What is a more efficient way of calculating the midpoint? (Choose one.)
A. int midpoint = (int) ((double) width) / 2.0;
B. int midpoint = Fixed32.div(width, 2);
C. int midpoint = (int) (width * 0.5f);
D. int midpoint = width >> 1;
E. int midpoint = width >> 2;
210-250 pdf Answer: D
22. Which two of the following operations should be avoided on the main event thread? (Choose two.)
A. Pushing a screen onto the display stack
B. Displaying a Dialog screen
C. Performing network communication
D. Calling the sleep method
E. Capturing of keyboard input
Answer: C,D
23. A BlackBerry device application collects information about several hundred books. The application needs to sort books by title. Which combination of data structures should be used to manage the objects? (Choose one.)
A.net.rim.device.api.util.SimpleSortingVector and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
B. java.util.Hashtable and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
C. net.rim.device.api.util.StringRepository and net.rim.device.api.util.StringPattern
D. java.util.TreeSet and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
E. java.util.Stack and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
210-250 vce Answer: A
24. An application receives notification that a new data object is being saved in the RuntimeStore. It may take up to 60 seconds to save this data. Which method should the application use to obtain the object from the RuntimeStore? (Choose one.)
A. get( long objectUID )
B. getInstance()
C. fetch( Class objectClass, long timeout )
D. waitFor( long objectUID )
E. put( long objectUID, Object anObject)
Answer: D

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About Cisco 200-901 Exam

  • Vendor: Cisco
  • Certifications: Cisco Certified DevNet Associate
  • Exam Code: 200-901
  • Exam Name: Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)

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Cisco Certified DevNet Associate 200-901 DEVASC Practice Test

QUESTION 1
Which two types of NAT are used in a network? (Choose two.)
A. routed NAT
B. static NAT
C. multicast NAT
D. normal NAT
E. dynamic NAT
Correct Answer: BE
Reference: https://www.dummies.com/programming/networking/cisco/types-of-network-address-translation/


QUESTION 2
FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Given a username of “devnet” and a password of “cisco123”, applications must create a base64 encoding of the string
“________________” when sending HTTP requests to an API that uses _______________ authentication.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.

QUESTION 3
A function my_func() returns True when it executes normally. Which Python snippet tests my_func()?

Alnaba 200-901 exam questions-q3

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: Reference: https://github.com/django/django/blob/master/tests/auth_tests/test_mixins.py

QUESTION 4
A developer is writing an application that uses a REST API and the application requires a valid response from the API.
Which element of the response is used in the conditional check?
A. body
B. headers
C. link
D. URL
E. status code
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 5
What is the first development task in test-driven development?
A. Write code that implements a desired function.
B. Write a failing test case for a desired function.
C. Write a passing test case for existing code.
D. Reverse engineer the code for a desired function.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Which CI/CD tool is an automation tool used to build, test, and deploy software?
A. Git
B. Gradle
C. Nagios
D. Jenkins
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.infoworld.com/article/3271126/what-is-cicd-continuous-integration-and-continuous-deliveryexplained.html


QUESTION 7
What are the purpose of the Cisco VIRL software tool?
A. to verify configurations against compliance standards
B. to automate API workflows
C. to simulate and model networks
D. to test performance of an application
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.speaknetworks.com/cisco-virl-better-gns3/

QUESTION 8
On which network plane is routing protocol traffic handled?
A. management plane
B. data plane
C. authentication plane
D. control plane
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/understanding_cppr

QUESTION 9
What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?
A. spanning tree
B. IPv4 address
C. IPv6 address
D. MAC address
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When a Cisco IOS XE networking device is configured using RESTCONF, what is the default data-encoding method?
A. YANG
B. YAML
C. XML
D. x-form-encoding
Correct Answer: A
Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/166/b_166_programmability_cg/restconf_prog_int.html

QUESTION 11
Which detail is included in a routing table?
A. broadcast address
B. TCP or UDP port number
C. IP protocol
D. destination next hop or outgoing interface
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://geek-university.com/ccna/routing-table-explained/

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the element of the Finesse API on the left onto the description of its functionality on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-901 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

Alnaba 200-901 exam questions-q12-2

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/finesse/#!cisco-finesse-desktop-apis


QUESTION 13
Which mechanism is used to consume a RESTful API design when large amounts of data are returned?
A. data sets
B. scrolling
C. pagination
D. blobs
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://nordicapis.com/everything-you-need-to-know-about-api-pagination/

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Building Cisco Service Provider Next-Generation Networks Part 1 (SPNGN1)

640-875 SPNGN1
Certification: CCNA Service Provider
Duration: 90 minutes (65 – 75 questions)
Available languages: English

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QUESTION 1
Which three of the following components must be elected before the Spanning Tree Protocol can converge in a
switched LAN? (Choose three.)
A. Designated ports
B. Alternate ports
C. Converged ports
D. Root bridge
E. Root ports
F. Backup ports
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 2
With IPv6, for which purpose are router solicitation and router advertisement used?
A. Routing protocol updates
B. Routing protocol neighbor peerings
C. Router and prefix discovery
D. Layer 3 to Layer 2 address resolution (similar to IPv4 ARP)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is the minimum version of DOCSIS that will support IPv6?
A. Version 1
B. Version 2
C. Version 3
D. Version 3.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco IOS XR CLI command displays the running state of each line card (including the fan tray) on the Cisco
ASR 9000 Series Router?
A. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE1#show platform
B. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE1(admin)#show platform
C. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE1#show hw-module fpd location all
D. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE1(admin)#show hw-module fpd location all
E. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE1#show version
F. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE1(admin)#show version
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three physical lines can provide local or remote access to a Cisco router or switch? (Choose three.)
A. Console port
B. Modem port
C. Virtual terminal lines
D. Switch fabric interface
E. Aux port
F. ManagementEthernet0/RSP0/CPU0/0
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT

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QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag the Cisco IOS XR command mode from the left and drop it on the correct prompt on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 640-875 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 640-875 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
If a bridge port is in the non-designated state, which two statements about spanning-tree operations on this port are
true? (Choose two.)
A. This port is in the Forwarding state.
B. This port sends BPDUs on the attached link.
C. This port has the lowest cost to the root bridge.
D. This port is considered the root port.
E. This port receives BPDUs.
F. This port is in the Blocked state.
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 9
What is the term that refers to a device that has no Customer Equipment directly connected to it in a Service Provider
network?
A. Provider Edge Router
B. Customer Edge Router
C. Non-customer Edge Router
D. Provider Router
E. Provider Edge Provider Router
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Given a ring topology, which loop prevention mechanism provides the fastest reconvergence time after a link failure?
A. Rapid Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Resilient Ethernet Protocol
C. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Spanning Tree Protocol
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
This show output is from the S7 Cisco Metro Switch and the PE7 Cisco ASR 9000 Series Router.
Which configuration change(s) is/are needed to bring the S7 FastEthernet 0/2 interface into the up/up state?
S7#show cdp neighbors Device ID Local Intrfce Holdtme Capability Platform Port IDPE7 Fas 0/2 163 R ASR9K Ser Gig
0/0/0/0S78 Fas 0/23 146 S I ME-3400E- Fas 0/21S8 Fas 0/21 178 S I ME3400E- Fas 0/21 *Mar 20 21:28:02.177:
%ETHCNTR-3HALF_DUX_COLLISION_EXCEED_THRESHOLD: Collisions at FastEthernet0/2 exceed threshold.
Considered as loop-back.*Mar 20 21:28:02.177: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: loopback error detected on Fa0/2, putting
Fa0/2 in err-disable state*Mar 20 21:28:03.184: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface
FastEthernet0/2, changed state to down S7#show interface fa0/2FastEthernet0/2 is down, line protocol is down (errdisabled) Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is e8ba.70b5.6c04 (bia e8ba.70b5.6c04) MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000
Kbit, DLY 1000 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive
set (10 sec) Half-duplex, 10Mb/s, media type is 10/100BaseTX input flow-control is off, output flow-control is
unsupported ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input 00:00:40, output 00:00:00, output hang never Last
clearing of “show interface” counters never Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0
Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue: 0/40 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate
0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 484423 packets input, 39349929 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 484423 broadcasts (167203
multicasts) 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 1 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 watchdog, 167203
multicast, 0 pause input 0 input packets with dribble condition detected 972398 packets output, 128931949 bytes, 0
underruns 0 output errors, 46 collisions, 4 interface resets 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no
carrier, 0 PAUSE output 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE7#show interfaces
gi0/0/0/0GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down Interface state transitions: 4 Hardware is GigabitEthernet,
address is 4055.392f.40a8 (bia 4055.392f.40a8) Internet address is 192.168.107.70/24 MTU 1514 bytes, BW 100000
Kbit (Max: 100000 Kbit) reliability 255/255, txload 0/255, rxload 0/255 Encapsulation ARPA, Full-duplex, 100Mb/s, THD,
link type is force-up output flow control is off, input flow control is off loopback not set, ARP type ARPA, ARP timeout 04:00:00 Last input 00:00:00, output
00:00:35
Last clearing of “show interface” counters never 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0
bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 972551 packets input, 128953765 bytes, 729 total input drops 172486 drops for unrecognized
upper-level protocol Received 0 broadcast packets, 800781 multicast packets 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles, 0 parity 0
input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored, 0 abort 484545 packets output, 39360900 bytes, 0 total output drops
Output 317283 broadcast packets, 167262 multicast packets 0 output errors, 0 underruns, 0 applique, 0 resets 0 output
buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out 4 carrier transitions
A.
Enable loopback line on the S7 Fa0/2 interface then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface.
B.
Enable duplex half on the PE7 Gi0/0/0/0 interface then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
C.
Change S7 Fa0/2 interface to duplex full and speed 100 then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface.
D.
Just need to no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
E.
Just need to shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 640-875 exam questions-q12

Company 1 has merged with Company 2. Company 1 is using RIPv2 as its IGP and Company 2 is using EIGRP as its
IGP. EIGRP also is running between R1 and R2 over the WAN link. Which action must be taken to allow these two
configurations?
The Company 1 RIP routes appear as external EIGRP routes within Company 2. The Company 2 EIGRP routes appear
as RIPv2 routes within Company 1.
A. Enable RIPv2 on the R2 router.
B. Enable RIPv2 on the R2 router and on all internal routers of Company 2. Enable EIGRP on all internal routers of
Company 1.
C. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R1 and R2 routers.
D. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R1 router.
E. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R2 router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 640-875 exam questions-q13

Host 3 on Network A is sending data to Host 8 on Network B. Which address is the default gateway of Host 3?
A. The address of the switch interface that is connected to router interface Fa0/0
B. The address of the switch interface that is connected to router interface Fa0/1
C. The address of the host that is connected to Network A
D. The address of the host that is connected to Network B
E. The address of the router interface Fa0/0
F. The address of the router interface Fa0/1
Correct Answer: E

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Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
200-105 exam Answer: B
Explanation: RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge, RSTP operates at Layer 2.

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth
usage.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST)
Introduction
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) maintains a spanning tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network. This means a switch can be the root bridge of a VLAN while another switch can be the root bridge of other VLANs in a common topology. For example, Switch 1 can be the root bridge for Voice data while Switch 2 can be the root bridge for Video data. If designed correctly, it can optimize the network traffic.

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
200-105 dumps Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:
The question says “no other configuration changes have been made” so we can understand these switches have the same bridge priority. SwitchC has lowest MAC address so, it will become root bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated ports (DP). Because SwitchC is the root bridge the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports (RP) -> B and F are correct. SwitchB must have a root port so which port will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost. In general, “cost” is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link, the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize: Link speed Cost SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated from the “cost to the root bridge” of each switch because a switch always advertises its cost to the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will
add its local port cost value to the cost in the BPDU. SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of 1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and
learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses Gi0/1 as its root port. Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of SwitchA will be designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
200-105 dumps
What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow
communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# no shut down
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
200-105 dumps Answer: B,E
Explanation:
The two answers B and E list all the commands needed to configure interVLAN routing. Please notice that Cisco switch 2950, 2960 only support dot1Q trunking so we don’t need to specify which trunking encapsulation to use in this case. For Cisco switches 3550 or above we have to use these commands instead: Switch3550(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Switch3550(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
References:

Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Port Roles
The role is now a variable assigned to a given port. The root port and designated port roles remain, while the blocking port role is split into the backup and alternate port roles. The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) determines the role of a port based on Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs). In order to simplify matters, the thing to remember about a BPDU is there is always a method to compare any two of them and decide whether one is more useful than the other. This is based on the value stored in the BPDU and occasionally on the port on which they are received. This considered, the information in this section
explains practical approaches to port roles. Compatibility with 802.1D RSTP is able to interoperate with legacy STP protocols. However, it is important to note that the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
200-105 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
VLANs are local to each switch’s database, and VLAN information is not passed between
switches without implementing VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP). Trunks carry traffic from all
VLANs to and from the switch by default but, can be configured to carry only specified
VLAN traffic. Trunk links are required to pass VLAN information between switches. So
Sw11 port should be trunk not access port. Additionally, there are no ports assigned to
VLAN 1.

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
VTP Modes
Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server Mode. In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode. When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain. Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN information. Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added,
deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management domain.

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QUESTION: 26
Scenario
A central government department, the Ministry of Food Hygiene (MFH), faces
increasing pressure to cut costs, better manage suppliers’ performance and reduce
the confusion caused by inadequate internal controls, outdated standards and
outdated technology. External consultants were employed to conduct a feasibility
study to identify options to address the problems, and the likely costs and benefits.
The following options were considered:
● Do nothing.
● Re-engineer selected business functions.
● Outsource selected business functions.
The feasibility study concluded that there was a case for outsourcing the
MFH Information
200-155 Exam Technology
Division and the Facilities Division (maintenance of buildings and grounds). The
recommendations were:
● One service provider should be contracted to provide the services currently
provided by the
Information Technology Division and the Facilities Division.
● A 10-year service contract should be agreed with the selected service provider.
The feasibility study developed high-level designs of the current organization,
processes, systems and
operating models, plus an outline Business Case for the required project. The
external consultants also made the following recommendations for the management
of the project:
● Use PRINCE2.
● Set up the project with 4 management stages:
Stage 1. Standard PRINCE2 initiation activities.
Stage 2. Create detailed designs (future organization, processes, systems and
operating models) and the service level agreement between MFH and the future
service provider.
Stage 3. Request and evaluate proposals, select service provider and agree contract.

Stage 4. Transfer equipment and staff, transfer responsibility for service provision
and run trial period.
Initial estimates indicated that the project would cost £2.5m and take two years to
complete. MFH senior management agreed that there was a case for outsourcing,
and accepted the recommendations as a basis for the project. There is an expected
saving of £20m over 10 years.
The Outsourcing project has completed the Starting up a Project process and is
now in the initiation stage. Because of the strategic importance of the project, the
MFH Chief Executive Officer has taken the role of Executive. A PRINCE2-
experienced Project Manager has been appointed from within MFH. Staff within
the business functions being outsourced will work with the external consultants
who conducted the feasibility study to define the 200-155 dumps detailed designs.
Which 2 statements should be recorded under the Major risks heading?
A. Due to market conditions a suitable service provider may not be found, possibly
leading to premature closure of the project.
B. Owing to employment contract changes staff may resist outsourcing, which
would make it difficult to transfer staff to the selected service provider.
C. MFH’s operations may be reduced and the 1a-year contract may not achieve its
estimated value of £80m, which would reduce the service provider’s profit.
D. The initial estimates, taken from the feasibility study report, indicate that the
project will take two years to complete, which means that the business problems
would remain for this period.
E. The management stages recommended by the consultants may not be
appropriate, resulting in confusion in planning.
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 27
HOTSPOT Scenario
A central government department, the Ministry of Food Hygiene (MFH), faces
increasing pressure to cut costs, better manage suppliers’ performance and reduce
the confusion caused by inadequate internal controls, outdated standards and
outdated technology. External consultants were employed to conduct a feasibility
study to identify options to address the problems, and the likely costs and benefits.
The following options were considered:
● Do nothing.
● Re-engineer selected business functions.
● Outsource selected business functions.
The feasibility study concluded that there was a case for outsourcing the
MFH Information
Technology

Division and the Facilities Division (maintenance of buildings and grounds). The
recommendations were:
● One service provider should be contracted to provide the services currently
provided by the
Information Technology Division and the Facilities Division.
● A 10-year service contract should be agreed with the selected service provider.
The feasibility study developed high-level designs of the current organization,
processes, systems and
operating models, plus an outline Business Case for the required project. The
external consultants also made the following recommendations for the management
of the project:
● Use PRINCE2.
● Set up the project with 4 management stages:
Stage 1. Standard PRINCE2 initiation activities.
Stage 2. Create detailed designs (future organization, processes, systems and
operating models) and the service level agreement between MFH and the future
service provider.
Stage 3. Request and evaluate proposals, select service provider and agree contract.
Stage 4. Transfer equipment and staff, transfer responsibility for service provision
and run trial period.
Initial estimates indicated that the project would cost £2.5m and take two years to
complete. MFH senior management agreed that there was a case for outsourcing,
and accepted the recommendations as a basis for the project. There is an expected
saving of £20m over 10 years.
The Outsourcing project has completed the Starting up a Project process and is
now in the initiation stage. Because of the strategic importance of the project, the
MFH Chief Executive Officer has taken the role of Executive. A PRINCE2-
experienced Project Manager has been appointed from within MFH. Staff within
the business functions being outsourced will work with the external consultants
who conducted the feasibility study to define the detailed designs.
Lines 1 to 6 in the table below consist of an assertion statement and a reason
statement. For each line identify the appropriate option, from options A to E, that
applies. Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.

200-155 pdf Answer:
QUESTION: 28
Which of the following is False?
A Successful project management team should.
A. Have business, user and supplier stakeholder representation
B. Never be reviewed as members should stay with the team for the duration
C. Ensure appropriate governance by defining responsibilities for directing,
managing and delivering the project and clearly defining accountability at all levels
D. Have an effective strategy to manage communication flows to and from
stakeholders
Answer: B
QUESTION: 29
Which of the following statements is true of the business interest on the project?

A. Ensures the project provides value for money
B. Ensures the requirements for the project are defined
C. Ensures the products produced meet the desired quality
D. Represents the users of the product
200-155 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 30
Which of the following represents the four key characteristics a good Project board
should display?
A. Authority, Credibility, Commitment, Availability
B. Authority, Credibility, Delegation, Availability
C. Authority, Availability, Connections, Delegation
D. Authority, Credibility, Connections, Delegation
200-155 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 31
In which Management product would the Project Board specify where the
authority for change requests lies?
A. Risk Management Strategy
B. Quality Management Strategy
C. Communication Strategy
D. Configuration Management Strategy
200-155 exam Answer: D

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Q&As: 310

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210-260 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 7
What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 7
E. 10
F. 15
210-260 exam Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of a honeypot IPS?
A. To create customized policies
B. To detect unknown attacks

C. To normalize streams
D. To collect information about attacks
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 10
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A
11.A “Device Fingerprint” is most closely associated with which of the following?
A. RSA Risk-Based Authentication
B. RSA Authentication Agent auto-registration
C. an On-Demand code sent to a mobile device

D. a device on which an RSA SecurID token is installed
210-260 pdf Answer:A
12. The term “Silent Collection” relates to
A. Risk-Based behavioral data.
B. Authentication Agent actions.
C. Administrator activity audit logs.
D. Primary-to-Replica database reconciliation.
Answer:A
13. If an organization wants to use RSA SecurID tokens without a PIN (tokencode only),
A. RSA Authentication Manager will not allow it.
B. their token choice is limited to only software tokens.
C. they should be advised that it is not a best security practice.
D. the user can leave their PIN setting blank when prompted to set a PIN.
210-260 vce Answer: C
14. The Adjudicator service is a process designed to
A. lock the RSA SecurID token if it is suspected stolen.
B. securely store and update the database encryption key.
C. prevent the same passcode from being replayed on different servers.
D. resolve database differences between an Authentication Manager server and Server Node.
Answer: C
15. VMware ESXi is used as part of an RSA Authentication Manager deployment because
A. ESXi provides the required firewall protection.
B. the Web Tier server can only be installed on ESXi.
C. Authentication Manager is distributed as a virtual appliance.
D. VMware provides a faster response time to Authentication Agents.
210-260 exam Answer: C
16. The policy to define a user’s PIN parameters (for example, length and composition) is managed
A. as a System Setting.
B. as part of the Token Policy.
C. as a part of Security Domain Policy.
D. as part of the User Authentication Policy.
Answer: B
17. One advantage of creating and running a report compared to a simple console search is that
A. console searches do not allow data filtering.
B. reports can return more results than a console search.
C. report generation is always faster than a console search.
D. console searches can only display results in real time – not historical data.
210-260 dumps Answer: B
18. For which of the following situations is creating a ‘package’ file necessary before installation or
deployment can begin? (Choose two)
A. RADIUS client installation
B. Replica instance deployment
C. Primary server deployment

D. Authentication Agent installation
E. Authentication Manager Web Tier installation
Answer: BE
19. The RSA Self-Service console most closely relates to
A. Authentication activity between an Agent and server.
B. Provisioning activity between a user and an authentication method.
C. Data connections between Active Directory and authentication credentials.
D. Deployment workflow for authentication servers and Web Tier load balancing.
210-260 pdf Answer: B
20. In a Primary/Replica environment, administrative changes can be made only on a Primary server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
21. Designating an “Alternate IP Address” value in an Agent record in the Authentication Manager
Security Console allows
A. an Authentication Agent to use multiple node secret files.
B. an Authentication Agent to seek the fastest responding server.
C. an Authentication Agent to communicate with multiple servers simultaneously.
D. Authentication Manager to recognize translated or multi-homed IP addresses for Agent
authentication requests.
210-260 vce Answer: D

22.The OSI model is a 7-layer model for understanding the functions of a communication system. What OSI
sublayers are specifically addressed by the IEEE 802.11-2007 standard? (Choose 2)
A. MSDU

B. PPDU
C. PLCP
D. MAC
E. IP
F. 802.1X
Correct Answer: CD
23.The 802.11 protocol specifies a fundamental channel access method that is required for all stations and is
used in all IBSS and BSS networks.
What is this fundamental channel access method called?
A. DCF
B. PCF
C. HCF
D. EDCAF
E. HCCA
F. PCF/CA
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
24.What factor is NOT taken into account when calculating the Link Budget of a point-to-point outdoor WLAN
bridge link?
A. Operating frequency
B. Transmit antenna gain
C. Transmit power
D. Antenna height
E. Receive sensitivity
F. Distance
Correct Answer: D
25. ABC Company is planning a point-to-multipoint outdoor bridge deployment with standalone (autonomous)
802.11 bridge units. 802.1X/EAP will be used for bridge authentication. What device in the bridge
implementation acts as the 802.1X Authenticator?
A. The RADIUS server
B. All non-root bridges
C. A designated non-root bridge
D. The root bridge
E. The Ethernet switch
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
26.The IEEE 802.11a/n physical layer technologies utilize the 5 GHz frequency band. What is true of the two
lower bands (UNII-1 and UNII-2) in this frequency spectrum? (Choose two)
A. The frequency range of these bands is 5000 MHz – 5200 MHz
B. Each of these two bands contain five 20 MHz channels.
C. Regulatory domains worldwide require DFS and TPC in these bands.
D. These bands have a total combined bandwidth of 200 MHz.

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Exam Code: 200-150
Exam Name: DCICN Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Updated: Sep 05, 2017
Q&As: 91

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-150 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 11
Which three layers of the OSI model are included in the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose
three.)
A. 2
B. 6
C. 3
D. 7
E. 4
200-150 exam Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 12
What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1?
A. 4 disks
B. 2 disks
C. 8 disks
D. 16 disks
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which two are 200-150 dumps functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two)
A. server connections
B. VLAN creation
C. packet filtering
D. high data transfer rate
E. high network fault tolerance
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 14
An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing
department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the business
department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department are allocated
accordingly. Which command should the engineer use?
A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110
B. mdsswitch# show vsan membership
C. mdsswitch# show vsan
D. mdsswitch# show vsan usage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION: 15
Scenario
Additional 200-150 pdf Information
During the initiation stage the Project Manager met with the Marketing Director to
find out more about the requirements of the promotional calendar and recorded the
following notes:

There has been a reduction in the order numbers at the MNO Manufacturing due in
part to the increased marketing activities of its competitors. 10% of customers
have not re-ordered in this financial year and staff morale is poor. A number of
skilled staff have left as a result and replacement staff have not been recruited due
to the reduced operation. If the project is successful, a recruitment campaign will
be required to fill the existing staff vacancies and there may be a requirement for
additional staff. Operational costs are likely to increase because skilled staff are
expensive and difficult to find.
In financial terms, there were a total of 1,500 orders in the last financial year, each
with an average profit of £2k. The Marketing department believes that sending a
promotional calendar to our current and prospective customers would increase
orders by at least 10% with a minimum of 10 further orders from the list of
prospective customers within 12 months from the date of distribution.
The Marketing Director will be funding the project from the business marketing
budget. She believes that the effect of a good company image portrayed by a
successful calendar would last into a second year. She has forecast the same
increase in orders for a second year and predicts that the annual employee
satisfaction survey will show a measurable improvement in staff morale.
A number of alternatives were explored, including:
• 20% discount for all repeat customers – not cost-effective and very short
term
• A promotional calendar as a free Christmas gift – would target current and
prospective customers and the benefits would last into a second year
• A series of television and press advertisements• was too expensive
• A direct mail shot to all customers – benefit would be short term
• Creation of an internet website – would not suit all customers
The calendar is seen as the favored option, as long as the company’s competitors do
not increase their 200-150 vce marketing activity. Whilst the Marketing department wants a
very high quality, glossy product, the project management team must be aware of
the cost this will incur. Which 2 statements should be recorded under the Expected
benefits heading?
A. Increase orders by at least 10% with a minimum of 10 further orders from the
list of prospective customers within 12 months.
B. It will be similar to calendars sent out in previous years
C. The Marketing department believes that the benefits of a good company image,
as portrayed by a successful calendar, will last into a second year and bring the
same increase in orders.
D. The calendar will contain photos of both staff and company products.
E. The Marketing department want a very high quality, glossy product as they
believe this will be more appealing to customers.
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 16
Scenario
Additional Information
During the initiation stage the Project Manager met with the Marketing Director to
find out more about the requirements of the promotional calendar and recorded the
following notes:
There has been a reduction in the order numbers at the MNO Manufacturing due in
part to the increased marketing activities of its competitors. 10% of customers
have not re-ordered in this financial year and staff morale is poor. A number of
skilled staff have left as a result and replacement staff have not been recruited due
to the reduced operation. If the 200-150 exam  project is successful, a recruitment campaign will
be required to fill the existing staff vacancies and there may be a requirement for
additional staff. Operational costs are likely to increase because skilled staff are
expensive and difficult to find.
In financial terms, there were a total of 1,500 orders in the last financial year, each
with an average profit of £2k. The Marketing department believes that sending a
promotional calendar to our current and prospective customers would increase
orders by at least 10% with a minimum of 10 further orders from the list of
prospective customers within 12 months from the date of distribution.
The Marketing Director will be funding the project from the business marketing
budget. She believes that the effect of a good company image portrayed by a
successful calendar would last into a second year. She has forecast the same
increase in orders for a second year and predicts that the annual employee
satisfaction survey will show a measurable improvement in staff morale.
A number of alternatives were explored, including:
• 20% discount for all repeat customers – not cost-effective and very short
term
• A promotional calendar as a free Christmas gift – would target current and
prospective customers and the benefits would last into a second year
• A series of television and press advertisements• was too expensive
• A direct mail shot to all customers – benefit would be short term
• Creation of an internet website – would not suit all customers
The calendar is seen as the favored option, as long as the company’s competitors do
not increase their marketing activity. Whilst the Marketing department wants a
very high quality, glossy product, the project management team must be aware of
the cost this will incur.
Which 2 statements should be recorded under the Expected dis-benefits heading?
A. A high quality, glossy product will involve additional costs.
B Individuals in the engineering team who are not selected to appear in the
calendar photographs will become de-motivated.
C The calendar may not result in the expected 10% increase in orders.

D. Because the Calendar project is a priority for the MNO Manufacturing
Company, the delivery of other projects within the Marketing department will be
delayed.
E. The calendar may not result in the 10 further orders from the list of prospective
customers in 12 months.
200-150 dumps Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 17
Scenario
Additional Information
During the initiation stage the Project Manager met with the Marketing Director to
find out more about the requirements of the promotional calendar and recorded the
following 200-150 pdf  notes:
There has been a reduction in the order numbers at the MNO Manufacturing due in
part to the increased marketing activities of its competitors. 10% of customers
have not re-ordered in this financial year and staff morale is poor. A number of
skilled staff have left as a result and replacement staff have not been recruited due
to the reduced operation. If the project is successful, a recruitment campaign will
be required to fill the existing staff vacancies and there may be a requirement for
additional staff. Operational costs are likely to increase because skilled staff are
expensive and difficult to find.
In financial terms, there were a total of 1,500 orders in the last financial year, each
with an average profit of £2k. The Marketing department believes that sending a
promotional calendar to our current and prospective customers would increase
orders by at least 10% with a minimum of 10 further orders from the list of
prospective customers within 12 months from the date of distribution.
The Marketing Director will be funding the project from the business marketing
budget. She believes that the effect of a good company image portrayed by a
successful calendar would last into a second year. She has forecast the same
increase in orders for a second year and predicts that the annual employee
satisfaction survey will show a measurable improvement in staff morale.
A number of alternatives were explored, including:
• 20% discount for all repeat customers – not cost-effective and very short
term
• A promotional calendar as a free Christmas gift – would target current and
prospective customers and the benefits would last into a second year
• A series of television and press advertisements• was too expensive
• A direct mail shot to all customers – benefit would be short term
• Creation of an internet website – would not suit all customers
The calendar is seen as the favored option, as long as the company’s competitors do
not increase their marketing activity. Whilst the Marketing department wants a
very high quality, glossy product, the project management team must be aware of
the cost this will incur.

Which 2 statements should be recorded under the Timescale heading?
A. Benefits will be lost if the project is not completed on time.
B. A recruitment campaign to fill the existing staff vacancies will need to take
place in the next 12 months.
C. Additional 10% increase in orders in year two.
D. The prepared calendar pack must be delivered by the first week in December.
E. The print company requires a 2 week notification period of the calendar pack
delivery.
200-150 vce Answer: C, D

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